ENCOR 350-401 Practice Test

Cisco Practice Tests

Question 1 / 55 - Mode : Exam
You have created a number of user accounts on a router for other administrators. You need to ensure that the usernames and passwords configured are required when they are logging in to the router locally. Which sequence of commands should you use? A. Router(config)#line console 0 Router(config-line)#password cisco Router(config-line)#login Router(config-line)#exit B. Router(config)#line console 0 Router(config-line)#login local Router(config-line)#exit C. Router(config)#line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)#login local Router(config-line)#exit D. Router(config)#line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)#password cisco Router(config-line)#login Router(config-line)#exit What two statements are applicable to a VLAN? (Choose two) A. Each subinterface has its own subnet B. The subinterface ID must be the same as the subnet mask C. A subinterface is limited to two VLANs D. The IP Address on the subinterface is the default gateway for the clients Which command should you use to configure EtherChannel load balancing based on the Layer 4 information of the sender and receiver? A. port-channel load-balance src-ip B. port-channel load-balance src-dst-ip C. port-channel load-balance src-dst-port D. port-channel load-balance src-dst-mac Which commands will you use to verify the IPv6 EIGRP interfaces that are participating in the routing process? (Choose two) A. show ipv6 eigrp interfaces B. show ipv6 C. show ipv6 routing protocol D. show ipv6 protocols What type of authentication does TrustSec use to ensure that traffic is coming from a trusted source? A. Password authentication B. MAC address authentication C. Certificate authentication D. IP address authentication Which role belongs to the IP SLA source? A. Takes two time stamps B. Sends data for operation C. One way measurement for latency D. Makes results highly accurate Which logging levels are enabled by default? A. 0–5 B. 1–7 C. 1–5 D. 0–7 What type of encryption does EAP-FAST use? A. AES B. DES C. SHA D. RC4 Which hash input code represents a source and destination MAC address? A. src-mac B. src-dst-ip C. src-dst-port D. src-dst-mac What is the best way to make sure an AP joins a specific controller? A. Let the AP select the least-loaded controller B. Use DHCP option 43 C. Specify the master controller D. Specify the primary controller Which of the following is optional to configure Flexible NetFlow? A. Flow exporter B. Flow record C. Flow sampler D. Flow monitor What is the result of the following commands? R1(config)# ip prefix-list filter-area-51 seq 5 deny 192.168.1.0/24 R1(config)# ip prefix-list filter-area-51 seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 le 32 R1(config)# router ospf 1 R1(config-router)# area 51 filter-list prefix filter-area-51 in A. R1 will filter the 192.168.1.0/24 Type 3 LSA, denying it to be sent into and out of area 51. All other LSAs into and out of area 51 will be permitted. B. R1 will filter the 192.168.1.0/24 Type 3 LSA from area 51, denying it to be sent into all other areas. All other Type 3 LSAs from area 51 will be permitted. C. R1 will filter the 192.168.1.0/24 LSA Type 3, denying it to be sent into area 51. All other Type 3 LSAs into area 51 will be permitted. D. R1 will filter the 192.168.1.0/24 LSA Type 3 from area 51, denying it to be sent into all other areas. All other Type 3 LSAs from area 51 will be permitted. Which discovery protocol can be used by non-Cisco network devices to advertise information about themselves to other devices on the network? A. CDP B. ARP C. AEP D. LLDP Which command will enable IP SLA to track the performance of an HTTP application? A. ip sla 1 type icmp-echo B. ip sla 1 type traceroute C. ip sla 1 type http D. ip sla 1 type web-application AAA authentication configuration must begin with which one of the following commands? A. aaa new-model B. radius-server host 192.168.200.10 C. aaa group server radius MyGroup D. aaa authentication MyGroup What is the Headers Content-Type Cisco vManage uses? A. MD5 B. X-Auth-Token C. x-www-form-urlencoded D. SSH E. JSON Which of the following commands is used to verify the interfaces that are participating in the routing process? A. show ip protocols B. show ip eigrp neighbor detail C. show eigrp neighbors D. show ip eigrp interfaces Which calculation is used to determine whether or not EIGRP for IPv6 feasible successors can be used for load-balancing? A. Variance * feasible distance of the successor B. Variance / reported distance C. Variance * reported distance D. Variance / feasible distance of the successor Which of the following is not a feature of Flexible NetFlow? A. Scalability. B. Efficiency. C. Traffic shaping. D. More detailed flow information. Which route will be redistributed if the following commands are applied? ip prefix-list PFL seq 5 permit 10.10.11.0/24 prefix-list PFL seq 10 permit 10.10.12.0/24 (Choose two) A. 10.10.13.0/24 B. 10.10.12.0/24 C. 10.10.11.0/24 D. 10.10.14.0/23 What Cisco command displays the stratum and whether the device is synchronized? A. show ntp stratum B. show ntp details C. show ntp status D. show ntp associations What is Cisco Threat Grid? A. The Cisco threat intelligence organization B. The Cisco security framework C. An aggregator of network telemetry data D. The Cisco sandbox malware analysis solution In TCP communications, which term is used to describe the amount of time it takes for data to be sent and the acknowledgment to be returned? A. Forward delay interval B. End-to-end delay C. Holddown D. Latency Which of the following are the benefits of using Virtual Switching System (VSS)? A. It allows for the use of multiple MAC addresses for a single physical switch B. It allows for the use of a single MAC address for multiple physical switches C. It allows the use of a single IP address for multiple physical switches D. It allows for the use of multiple IP addresses for a single physical switch Which one of the following commands is required to begin configuring MST on a switch? A. spanning-tree mst configuration B. spanning-tree mst C. spanning-tree mst instance D. spanning-tree mst enable Which of the following are characteristics of IBGP neighbor relationships? (Choose three) A. Peers need to be in the same autonomous system, or AS B. Peers can have different autonomous system, or AS numbers C. Neighbors need to be able to reach each other D. IBGP neighbors need to be in a full mesh of peers Which of the following are characteristics of an mGRE configuration? (Choose three) A. Only one tunnel interface needs to be configured on a router to support multiple remote GRE peers B. Devices using mGRE require NHRP to build dynamic GRE tunnel C. mGRE interfaces support unicast, multicast, and broadcast traffic D. mGRE interfaces only support unicast traffic What is the HTTP request type used to authenticate with Cisco DNA Center? A. PUT B. POST C. PATCH D. GET E. HEAD What address range can be used for doing Network Prefix Translation, or NPTv6, on the internal network devices? A. FC00::/7 B. 0100::/64 C. 2001::/32 D. CF00::/8 Which statements about redistribution between two routing protocols are true? (Choose three) A. The router that is doing redistribution does not change its routing table B. Static routes are not redistributed C. Routers can redistribute static and connected route D. Only routes from the routing table are redistributed Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM) is a wireless LAN (WLAN) transmission method. Which three of the following WLAN standards support OFDM? (Choose 3 answers) (Choose three) A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11g D. 802.11n Suppose that you would like to configure a SPAN session where the source is a trunk link and the VLAN tags should be preserved as frames are mirrored to the destination. Which one of the following commands should you enter? A. monitor session 1 destination interface gig1/0/48 both B. monitor session 1 destination interface gig1/0/48 encapsulate replicate C. monitor session 1 destination interface gig1/0/48 ingress dot1q D. monitor session 1 destination interface gig1/0/48 ingress untagged vlan Which condition should you take into consideration when configuring Frame Relay multipoint subinterfaces for a partial-mesh topology? A. Count to infinity B. Flapping C. Split horizon D. Broadcast storms What tool we can use to deal with traffic that goes beyond the desired rate? A tool that can markdown or completely drop some traffic. A. Policers B. Shapers C. WRR D. None of these What is the default response code for a successful API call using Cisco DNA Center and RESTCONF? A. 200 B. 404 C. 500 D. 403 Which three attributes must an instance of Multiple Spanning Tree (MST) have when it is defined? (Choose three) A. MST configuration name B. MST configuration revision number C. MST instance-to-VLAN mapping table D. MST maximum diameter threshold E. MST instance hello time interval F. MST instance bpdu interval What command is used to configure a VRF to use a specific routing protocol on a Cisco IOS router? A. ip vrf routing-protocol B. ip vrf protocol-configure C. router vrf routing-protocol D. router vrf protocol-configure Which is a criteria required for switches in the same region? A. A revision number must be the same B. An MST table to track connections C. Switches must be independently named D. Location of instances must be specified Which of the following is a better description for the container? A. A lightweight virtual machine B. A software emulation of a physical server without an operating system C. An application with its dependencies packaged inside a tarball D. An isolated environment where containerized applications run. Which one of the following commands is required to begin configuring MST on a switch? A. spanning-tree mst configuration B. spanning-tree mst C. spanning-tree mst instance D. spanning-tree mst enable Which of the following LSA types informs the OSPF domain how to get to the ASBR? A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type 3 D. Type 4 E. Type 5 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/an-overview-of-ospf/ospf-lsas.html What is the primary difference between VRRP and HSRP? (Choose two) A. HSRP is a standard protocol, while VRRP is Cisco proprietary B. VRRP offers Layer 2 First Hop Redundancy, while HSRP offers Layer 3 First Hop Redundancy C. VRRP is a standard protocol, while HSRP is Cisco proprietary D. HSRP is configured at the global level, while VRRP is configured at the interface level E. With VRRP, the active router is referred to as the master virtual router What are the features of encapsulating security payload (ESP)? (Choose four) A. It provides encryption, integrity, data origin authentication, and antireplay B. It can be used in tunnel mode or transport mode C. ESP transport mode authenticates the ESP header D. ESP transport mode increases the number of headers used E. ESP tunnel mode hides internal addressing F. ESP tunnel mode encrypts the ESP authentication packet R1 and R2 attach to the same Ethernet VLAN, with subnet 10.1.19.0/25, with addresses 10.1.19.1 and 10.1.19.2, respectively, configured with the ip address interface subcommand. The routers use an FHRP. Host A and host B attach to the same LAN and have correct default router settings per the FHRP configuration. Which of the following statements is true for this LAN? A. The design breaks IPv4 addressing rules, because two routers cannot connect to the same LAN subnet. B. If one router fails, neither host can send packets off-subnet. C. If one router fails, only one of the two hosts will still be able to send packets off-subnet. D. If one router fails, both hosts will use the one remaining router as a default router. In Software-Defined Access (SDA), which of the answers are part of the overlay data plane? A. LISP B. GRE C. OSPF D. VXLAN To configure a VLAN access list, you use the vlan access-map command. To apply the VACL, which one of the following commands should you use? A. access-group vacl acl-name vlan-list B. vlan filter acl-name vlan-list vlan-list C. vacl acl-name vlan-list vlan-list D. vlan map acl-name vlan-list vlan-list What an 802.11a device or transmitter can do to improve signal quality if the device is moving away from the transmitter? A. Aggregate more channels B. Use more radio chains C. Switch to a more complex modulation scheme D. Switch to a less complex modulation scheme Which of the following port state is only able to receive BPDUs? A. Listening B. Learning C. Forwarding D. Blocking You want to calculate the total metric that EIGRP uses to reach your router. Assuming default k values, with a minimum bandwidth of 1,000,000 and a cumulative delay of 10 microseconds, what is the total metric? A. 2816 B. 11 C. 20 D. 5120 ____ is the Cisco Lifecycle Services model. A. FCAPS B. ITIL C. TMN D. SNMP E. PPDIOO What is the main purpose of the Cisco DNA Center monitoring workflow? A. To monitor and analyze the network for performance and health issues. B. To configure network devices for optimal performance. C. To manage and troubleshoot network devices. Select the statements that describe the configuration of HSRP authentication. (Choose four) A. The default authentication type is MD5 authentication B. The default authentication type is text authentication C. MD5 strings as keys on a key chain is less flexible because you can't define multiple keys with different validity times D. Configuring HSRP authentication can prevent rouge Layer 3 devices from joining HSRP groups E. If the MD5 digest on the incoming packets differs from the digest of the device, the HSRP packet will be rejected F. If the authentication is text on one device and MD5 on the other devices, HSRP packets will be rejected Which tracking options does HSRP have available? (Choose two) A. HSRP can track objects such as the IP routing table B. HSRP can track interfaces C. HSRP can track objects such as MAC addresses D. HSRP can track objects based on CPU A network administrator enters the command clear ip route * and as a result he sees the message, “Please update the network documentation to record why the ip routing table was cleared.” Which router feature was used in this case? A. SNMP B. SysLog C. NetFlow D. EEM E. CEF F. Debug Which command can you use to set a tag of 40 for a route map? A. set tag 40 B. add tag 40 C. tag 40

Want to take your practice tests to the next level? AlphaPrep’s purpose-built Cisco test engine has the largest question bank, adaptive questions, and advanced reporting which tells you exactly when you’re ready to pass the real exam. Click here for your free trial.

The ENCOR 350-401 is for the CCNP Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) exam. You can use the practice exams to check your knowledge and improve your understanding in preparation for the real exam, the Cisco CCNP Enterprise ENCOR certification.

The Cisco CCNP ENCOR practice test includes questions to test your knowledge of Cisco core enterprise network technologies. The practice CCNP ENCOR questions include Cisco enterprise network architecture, virtualization, infrastructure, network assurance, security, and automation.

The Cisco ENCOR exam is a core exam that validates the candidate’s knowledge and skills related to the Cisco enterprise network, which includes WLAN design, network security design, Cisco SD-WAN solution, Cisco SD-Access solution, Cisco DNA Center, basic Python components, and others.

ENCOR 350-401 Practice Test

Complete this form to get your score report