CCNP Practice Test | IP Switched Networks (SWITCH)

Which best describes the function of MSTP?

A. Increases spanning tree instances

B. Creates MAC flapping

C. Sets alternate port to forwarding state

D. Prevents bridge loops from occurring

Which of the following is not a purpose of the Root Bridge with the STP?

A. Maintains network topology

B. Acts as reference point of the network

C. It is the ending point of the network

D. Propagates timers

Which of the following is a feature of DHCP snooping?

A. Untrusted ports allow request messages

B. Every port becomes trusted

C. Monitors flow of BPDU messages

D. Untrusted ports allow inbound offers

Which command should you use to configure EtherChannel load balancing based on the Layer 2 information of the sender and receiver?

A. port-channel load-balance src-dst-ip

B. port-channel load-balance src-dst-port

C. port-channel load-balance src-dst-mac

D. port-channel load-balance src-ip

You need to create an EtherChannel to bundle multiple Gigabit Ethernet ports into one logical channel. You need to use a Cisco proprietary protocol to ensure that the EtherChannel will form only if the ports are connected to another Cisco device that initiates the negotiation process. Which command do you need to use?

A. channel-group 1 mode active

B. channel-group 1 mode auto

C. channel-group 1 mode passive

D. channel-group 1 mode desirable

In which part of the DORA process does the client indicate that it will be using the IP information provided by the DHCP server?

A. Acknowledge

B. Discover

C. Request

D. Offer

Which statements describe the elements of GLBP operation? (Choose three)

A. For each GLBP forwarder configured, an additional MAC address is used

B. The AVG responds to all ARP requests using a round-robin load-balancing

C. As soon as you enable a GLBP group, that group is operating so customization should be configured prior to enabling the group

D. The show glbp command will display detailed information about each virtual gateway or forwarder

E. PCs send ARP requests only after a GLBP group is established

Which is a feature of the SNMP?

A. Uses Management Information Base

B. Polls client devices on network

C. Managed devices are layer 1 devices

D. Supports scanning the network nodes

What are Layer 3 links or router interfaces used for on a multilayer switch?

A. They allow subinterfacing and subnet masking for SVI connections

B. They are used when a link between devices is dedicated for that subnet

C. They require trunking and can then support VLANs

D. They add routing and Spanning Tree Protocol support to an interface

What are the recommendations for configuring VTP? (Choose two)

A. Configure the domain name for DTP trunk negotiation

B. Configure passwords on transparent mode switches

C. Configure different VTP domain names for each switch block

D. Configure the VTP domain name as "null"

What does the command "ipv6 nd other-config-flag" instruct the client to do?

A. To obtain an IPV6 address

B. To enable message multicasting

C. To get information from a DHCP server

D. To load configuration of a local server

Which of the following is a feature of ARP spoofing?

A. Utilizes grateful ARP Replies

B. Attacker can only capture messages

C. Disables the ARP cache

D. Uses packet capture software

Review the switch configuration. What can be determined from it? (Choose three)

Review the switch configuration. What can be determined from it?

A. DAI is enabled for VLANs 10 and 20

B. DHCP snooping is not enabled globally

C. It allows only VLANs 10 and 20 to be carried on the trunk

D. DAI is enabled on the fastethernet 0/1 interface and is configured as a trusted interface

E. The number of DHCP packets that the fastethernet 0/1 interface can handle is 50 per second

How does TACACS+ provide guaranteed packet delivery?

A. It combines authentication and authorization

B. It uses TCP as its transport protocol

C. It uses UDP as its transport protocol

D. It inserts a 4-byte tag field into the original Ethernet frame

Which statement about the configuration of DAI is true?

A. DAI configuration is used to dynamically maintain per-port VLAN ACLs.

B. DAI configuration is used to allow the SSH protocol on vty lines.

C. DAI configuration is used to set the preempt delay timer.

D. DAI configuration is used to intercept all ARP packets on untrusted ports.

You are creating a verification plan for a security solution that you want to implement on your network. Which command would you include to provide information on which switch ports are protected as well as the action that will be taken in the event of a violation?

A. show vlan filter

B. show ip dhcp snooping

C. show port-security

D. show port-security address

Review the router output. Which statement is true?

A. The physical IP address of R1 is 192.168.1.1.

B. R1 will send out advertisements every second.

C. The last two digits of the virtual router's MAC address indicate the group number 1.

D. The virtual IP address of R1 is 192.168.1.1.

In what increments can the port ID priority be changed?

A. 4

B. 8

C. 240

D. 16

Which one of the following is not a problem solved by STP?

A. Multiple frame transmission

B. Enables loops in layer 1

C. MAC database instability

D. Broadcast storms

Which command is used to verify the IP Source Guard configuration on a switch?

A. SW# show ip arp

B. SW# show ip verify source

C. SW# show monitor

D. SW# show ip dhcp snooping

Which command is used to enable UDLD on copper cables and want it to try to re-establish a connection before declaring the port error-disabled?

A. #udld port normal

B. #udld enable | aggressive

C. #udld enable | normal

D. #udld port aggressive

What are typical features of a VLAN? (Choose two)

A. A VLAN is an independent LAN network

B. A VLAN has its own subnet

C. A VLAN cannot span multiple switches

D. A VLAN is a collision domain

Identify the characteristics of the Gateway Load Balancing Protocol. (Choose three)

A. Routes traffic to multiple gateways distributed across routers

B. There can be four active virtual forwarders within a GLBP group

C. Allows full use of resources on all devices without the administrative burden of creating multiple groups

D. Requires manual rerouting in the event of a failure

E. Provides a single virtual IP address and multiple virtual MAC addresses

Which statements describe HSRP load sharing? (Choose two)

A. HSRP supports load sharing by default

B. HSRP load sharing can be accomplished by leaving the default HSRP priority values at their default

C. HSRP load sharing can be accomplished by tuning the default HSRP priority values

D. HSRP load sharing can be implemented by MHSRP

Which option allows data to be sourced from a specific MAC address or specific IP address?

A. PACL

B. ACL

C. VACL

D. RACL

You are currently monitoring traffic on your switching network using RSPAN. Traffic on the RSPAN source port is configured for bidirectional monitoring. You want to disable received traffic on port 2.
Which command should you use?

A. no monitor session 1 source interface fastEthernet0/2 rx

B. no monitor session 1 source interface fastEthernet0/2 both

C. no monitor session all

D. no monitor session 2

Which mechanism is used to ensure STP stability by preventing an alternate port from becoming the designated port when no BPDUs are received?

A. BPDU Filter

B. LoopGuard

C. PortFast

D. BPDUGuard

Which DHCP configuration option is used to inform the client which POP3 server to use?

A. Option 150

B. Option 43

C. Option 69

D. Option 70

Which method uses the FIB to make forwarding decisions by a Layer 3 switch?

A. Flow-based switching

B. Route caching

C. Topology-based switching

D. Process switching

An administrator attempts to configure IPv6 on a Cisco Catalyst 3560 switch, as presented in the output. What is the cause of the issue?

A. IPv6 requires a Layer 3 switch.

B. IPv6 requires at least a Catalyst 3750 switch.

C. The switch is using the default SDM template.

D. The command should have been issued from router configuration mode.

Review the switch configuration. What can be determined from this configuration?

A. Port security has not been enabled on the fastethernet 0/1 interface.

B. IP Source Guard is enabled on port 0/1 with IP source and MAC address filtering.

C. The maximum number of IP addresses allowed on port 0/1 is 2.

D. The percentage of DHCP packets that the fastethernet 0/1 interface can handle is 50.

Identify the command that allows you to verify EtherChannel load balancing on source and destination IP addresses.

A. Switch(config)#port-channel load-balance src-dst-ip

B. Switch(config)#show platform etherchannel

C. Switch#show etherchannel load-balance

D. Switch(config)#port-channel load-balance src-ip

What is used in multilayer switches to perform lookups of information, such as ACLs and QoS?

A. ARP table

B. CAM table

C. TCAM table

D. FIB table

Refer to the GLBP configuration on switch SW4. If switch SW4 has a higher priority than the current active virtual forwarder (AVF), how long will switch SW4 wait before taking over the role as AVF?

A. 300 minutes

B. 5 minutes

C. 700 milliseconds

D. 200 milliseconds

Why would an enterprise class network not use an External router between VLANs? (Choose three)

A. The implementation is very difficult

B. Additional Latency is added

C. The router becomes a single point of failure

D. The single traffic path can get congested

Which time source devices are more trust-worthy?

A. Stratum 3

B. Stratum 8

C. Stratum 10

D. Stratum 6

Which of the following MAC address would be assigned as the Root Bridge?

A. aabb.cc00.4500

B. aabb.cc00.5000

C. aabb.cc00.4600

D. aabb.cc00.4560

Which statements accurately describe issues and best practices that should be considered when you are configuring the native VLAN on an 802.1Q trunk link? (Choose two)

A. Native VLAN interface configurations must match at both ends of the link

B. A switch always uses the same native VLAN mode whether in access mode or trunk mode

C. The default native VLAN 1 should be used whenever possible

D. The native VLAN is modified using the switchport trunk native vlan command

Which command can be used to verify if 802.1Q encapsulation is being used?

A. show vlan

B. show vtp status

C. show interfaces trunk

D. show spanning-tree

Which statement best describes the UplinkFast mechanism?

A. Applied to each interface independently

B. Improves the conversion time

C. Best implemented at the access layer

D. When used transitions takes 30 seconds

Select statements that describe how the IPv6 native mechanism provides First Hop Redundancy. (Choose two)

A. IPv6 provides a new ICMP type 134 packet for use in First Hop Redundancy

B. The router advertisement used for First Hop Redundancy is a part of the NTP suite

C. Hosts will forward traffic to the gateway it receives the advertisement message from last

D. IPv6 provides First Hop Redundancy through its router advertisement mechanism

Which SNMP version introduces security features?

A. SNMPv4

B. SNMPv1

C. SNMPv3

D. SNMPv2

Which two statements accurately describe EtherChannel interfaces? (Choose two)

A. The range of allowed VLANs must be the same on all interfaces that make up a Layer 2 EtherChannel trunk.

B. Any configurations made to the physical interfaces are applied to the EtherChannel.

C. The STP path cost can be different on the interfaces that form an EtherChannel.

D. Interfaces need to be part of the same module to form an EtherChannel.

E. Shutting down one of the interfaces in an EtherChannel bundle will shut down the rest of the interfaces in the bundle.

Identify possible causes for switch port errors. (Choose three)

A. Port security violation

B. Duplex mismatch

C. Link flapping

D. BPDU filters

You need to prevent Layer 2 connectivity between two end devices that are connected to a Catalyst switch. The two end devices must remain in the same IP subnet. What should you do first?

A. Set the VTP mode to transparent

B. Configure an interface as an isolated port or promiscuous port

C. Set the port mode to promiscuous

D. Configure secondary VLANs

Which command setting can be set to encrypt the data traffic?

A. Access-list

B. IfAdminStatus

C. Security model

D. Readview

Which of the following are best practices when configuring a secure password on a switch? (Choose three)

A. Use enable secret command

B. Use AAA authentication when possible

C. Use "enable password" command

D. Use service password-encryption to secure all other passwords

Which is not a matching criteria to enable switches to be part of a region?

A. Configured with a region name

B. Must operate at same speed

C. Specify a revision number

D. A VLAN association table in region

What are characteristics of the access layer? (Choose two)

A. Convergence for voice, wireless, and data

B. Reliability through redundancy and fast convergence

C. Aggregates access nodes and uplinks

D. Security services to control network access

Which is a feature of the STP BackboneFast mechanism?

A. Can only be configured rapid STP

B. Sends a Root Link Query

C. Best implemented at the access layer

D. Enables the Max Age Timer

What is a feature of StackWise?

A. Creates multiple logical switching unit

B. Switches are connected with fiber

C. Creates multiple switch EtherChannel

D. Has multiple IP addresses

What protocol can you use to advertise a subnet to all the other devices in a topology?

A. EIGRP

B. DRP

C. DHCP

D. SVI

Which statement is incorrect when securing NTP using authentication and access lists?

A. Configure NTP authentication on client

B. Configure NTP authentication on server

C. ACL contains authenticated IPs

D. ACL contains the unauthenticated IPs

Identify statements that describe the distribution layer. (Choose three)

A. Provides a high-speed backbone for the enterprise

B. Provides redundant connections and devices for high availability

C. Aggregates access nodes and uplinks

D. Provides access and aggregation for users

E. Implements policies such as filtering and security, QoS

Which of the following are examples of switch security concerns? (Choose three)

A. Keyloggers

B. Bluesnarfing

C. Packet sniffers

D. MAC address spoofing

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