CCNA DC Technologies Practice Test

Identify the options that describe capabilities of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Supervisor Module. (Choose three)

A. Can be upgraded to support Cisco Unified Fabric technology

B. Centralized forwarding architecture enabling independent upgrades of the supervisor and fabric

C. Contains a built-in packet capture and protocol decoding tool allows the analysis of control plane traffic

D. Continuous system operation with the help of active and standby supervisors

E. Uses CMP to provide a complete OOB management and monitoring capability independent from the primary operating system

Cisco Nexus 1000V provides VMs with dedicated switch ports using which technology?

A. VEM

B. VDC

C. VSS

D. VSM

A word is the smallest unit of data that a Fibre Channel uses.

How many bits does a word consist of?

A. 128

B. 64

C. 16

D. 32

What is located in the top-left pane of the Cisco UCS Manager GUI?

A. Navigation trail

B. Fault summary

C. Equipment tab

D. Server tab

What are the characteristics of the vNetwork standard switch operation in a virtual network? (Choose two)

A. It supports inbound and outbound load balancing

B. It participates in STP, DTP, or PAgP

C. It provides connectivity for VM communication within and between ESX hosts

D. It operates as a physical layer 2 switch

Which file-based storage protocol is used by Microsoft Windows servers to read and write files across a network?

A. NFS

B. FCoE

C. SCSI

D. CIFS

Which characteristic would make the Cisco MDS 9500 Series switches a good choice for the core layer of your data center SAN design?

A. Cooling efficiency

B. High availability

C. Policy-based VM connectivity

D. Non-disruptive image upgrades

How does FabricPath handle equal cost path links? (Choose three)

A. Reliable Layer 2 and Layer 3 connectivity is provided using STP inside the FabricPath

B. FabricPath supports up to 16 ECMP links that can be active between any two devices

C. Upon a failure, traffic is redistributed across remaining links providing fast convergence

D. Using ECMP at the data plane, the network can use all the links that are available between any two devices

Which item do you need to use when initially connecting an FEX to a server?

A. Fabric port channel

B. FEX uplink

C. FEX port

D. Fabric port

Which option is a key feature of Cisco UCSM?

A. Centralized license management for all Cisco MDS switches

B. Lights-out RMON of the supervisor module

C. Bandwidth management

D. Automated device discovery

What are the features of the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series distributed switch? (Choose two)

A. Enhanced QoS capabilities

B. Can be accessed by using the VMware vSphere Client

C. New port-security capabilities

D. Can use the VMware vStorage VMFS for storing VMs

Which method of preventing the same volume being accessed by more than one filesystem allows LUNs to be seen only by selected servers identified by their pWWN?

A. LUN masking

B. LUN zoning

C. LUN mapping

What are the benefits of server virtualization? (Choose two)

A. It allows you to place servers in different physical locations

B. You can have multiple instances of the same type of operating system running in parallel on one server

C. The virtualization layer provides uniformity of hardware to the installed operating system

D. It is independent of storage platform or SAN transport

Which two statements describe storage communications between initiators and targets? (Choose two)

A. LUN mapping controls paths between initiators and targets.

B. The client application resides on the target.

C. The initiator is typically a storage device.

D. LUN masking makes specific LUNs available to server ports.

Which is utilized by the active/active FEX deployment model?

A. Static Pinning

B. Virtual port channels

C. Straight-through connectivity

D. Dynamic Pinning

Which license is required to support VDCs on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches?

A. Scalable Services license

B. Base license

C. Advanced LAN Enterprise license

D. Enterprise license

What should you consider when using Hyper-V instead of VMware? (Choose two)

A. Multiple hosts cannot access the same LUN on SAN storage

B. A virtualized partition has access to the physical processor

C. It uses cluster-shared volumes storage to support live migration of Hyper-V VMs from one Hyper-V server to another

D. It isolates VM operating systems from one another through partitioning or logical isolation

Which command would you use to display the isolated VSAN assignment on a switch?

A. show vsan membership

B. show fcns

C. show vsan

D. show flogi database

Which of the following FEX deployments provides the most redundant topology?

A. Active/active model

B. Dynamic Pinning model

C. Active/passive model

D. Static Pinning model

What is the stripe length when we have two disks with each stripe block being 512 bytes?

A. 1024

B. 2

C. 256

D. 512

What are the characteristics of a vSwitch? (Choose two)

A. Can have as many as 508 useable ports per vSwitch

B. It is created in the ESX or ESXi host

C. Every vSwitch acts as an independent entity

D. Can have as many as 64 VMNICs per vSwitch

Select the options that describe the capacities of the Cisco Nexus 7000 9-Slot Series chassis. (Choose two)

A. LEDs report the power supply, fan, fabric, supervisor, and I/O module status

B. A 9-Slot Switch chassis with up to eight I/O module slots supports up to 336x1 and 10 Gigabit Ethernet ports

C. Front-to-back airflow with dual system and fabric fan trays for cooling

D. Integrated cable management system allowing maximum flexibility

Which two statements are true about VDCs? (Choose two)

A. Two VDCs configured for vPC on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch can share the same vPC peer link and vPC peer keepalive link.

B. A vPC domain can have a maximum of two VDCs.

C. VDCs allow a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch to be partitioned into multiple logical switches.

D. A Cisco Nexus Series switch has two default VDCs that cannot be deleted.

Which options influence the data center design? (Choose four)

A. Architectures that can distribute Layer 2 traffic on all available links

B. The need for a higher level of reliability, with minimized downtime for updates and configuration changes

C. The need to decrease computing power at a lower cost

D. The need to reduce overall power consumption in the data center

E. The need to optimize computing resources by increasing the rate of growth of physical computing nodes

F. Architectures capable of supporting a SAN and a LAN on the same network for server consolidation

How many physical servers can be connected to a single 5K using the Cisco Nexus 2232 10-GB E Fabric Extender and not including a Layer 3 card?

A. 768

B. 32

C. 8

D. 256

Which statements describe dual-sided vPCs on the Cisco Nexus 7000 and 5000 Series Switches? (Choose two)

A. They can be used to create a loop-free logical topology between the aggregation and distribution layer switches

B. Dual-sided vPC can be scaled to 48-way port channels when using F-series modules

C. Dual-sided vPC enables a 16-way port channel to be created between the access and aggregation layers

D. They can be used to enable server dual-homing with dual-active connections between servers and access layer switches

Which is the most important IPV4 address for future administration?

A. Switch address

B. Default gateway

C. Subnet mask

D. Cluster address

What is a feature of the active/standby topology?

A. Is able to scale up well

B. Performs clash avoidance

C. Server connected to two 5Ks

D. Does not provide any fail-safe

Which of the following can be verified by the "vemcmd show card" command? (Choose two)

A. Control and packet VLANs

B. VSM port

C. VEM control agent MAC ID

D. Card name and domain ID

E. VEM port

Which interface is used to carry CDP packets from a VEM to a VSM?

A. Packet interface

B. Fixed vEth interface

C. Control interface

D. Floating vEth interface

Which options describe the VDC capabilities? (Choose four)

A. Within each VDC is a set of unique and independent VLANs and VRFs

B. Because VDCs are independent, VLAN numbers and VRF names can be reused in different VDCs

C. There is an internal connection between the VLANs and VRFs in different VDCs

D. VLANs and VRFs in different VDCs are strictly isolated

E. VDCs have access to the resources that are allocated to them and can also access resources located in other VDCs

F. VDC 1 is the default VDC which is responsible for creating and managing other VDCs

Identify the statements that describe the function of the "feature" command. (Choose three)

A. Issuing the feature fcoe command makes all Fibre Channel interface types available

B. The "show running-config | include feature" command is used to determine the features that are currently enabled on the switch

C. Interfaces, protocols, and their related configuration contexts are not visible until the feature is enabled on the Cisco Nexus platform

D. In the default configuration, all features are enabled on the switch such as telnet and lldp

What benefits does network-based virtualization provide to overcome the challenges of traditional SAN management solutions? (Choose two)

A. Data is better protected by simplified snapshot and replication techniques

B. The virtualization manager remaps the CDB and LUN and returns it to the server

C. The server sends the modified control frame to the storage target port

D. Servers are no longer responsible for volume management and data migration

Which is a feature that best describes the UCS C-Series rack servers?

A. Cannot be used for unified computing

B. Includes the UCS manager

C. An entry point into unified computing

D. Cannot migrate to a UCS solution

Which feature best describes the VE port?

A. Enables multihop Fibre Channel

B. Act as an FCoE inter-switch link

C. Enables Fibre Channel between switches

D. Limits the speeds that can be reached

Which mapping table is inside the front-end array controller and determines which LUNs are advertised through which storage array ports?

A. zoning

B. LUN masking

C. LUN zoning

D. LUN mapping

Identify the options that describe the Fibre Channel technology. (Choose three)

A. Fibre Channel relies on upper-layer protocols (ULPs) to provide reliability and redelivery of traffic

B. Fibre Channel combines the best of the SCSI and Ethernet worlds

C. Fibre Channel is the transport technology that is most commonly used for SANs

D. Fibre Channel is a technology for transporting data between devices

The Fibre Channel Name Server (FCNS) is a distributed service that implements a database in the fabric for storing information about each node. The information stored about each node includes the Fibre Channel IDs (FCIDs), pWWns and nWWNs. It also contains the Fibre Channel operating parameters, such as upper-layer protocols (ULPs) and classes of service.

A. VSAN

B. FCID

C. FCNS

D. FLOGI

How many different types of service profile templates are there to use to create profiles?

A. 2

B. 1

C. Unlimited

D. 4

In the Virtual Machine Properties window, which option should you set the port group to in order to ensure consistent workflow in pushing policies out to VMs?

A. dvSwitch

B. Network Label

C. Port UUID

D. Specify Port

Which of the following options are examples of how VDCs provide fault isolation? (Choose three)

A. Fault isolation is enhanced by providing per-VDC debug syslog commands

B. Network topology changes in one VDC do not affect other VDCs on the same switch

C. A spanning-tree recalculation that is started in one VDC affects the spanning-tree domains of other VDCs in the same physical chassis

D. If a process crashes in one VDC, then that crash is isolated from other VDCs

E. Each VDC runs the same processes for control plane and management plane functions, creating only one fault domain

Identify the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches access roles. (Choose four)

A. VDC-admin

B. VDC-operator

C. Admin-operator

D. Network-operator

E. Network-admin

F. Admin-VDC

Which VN Tag information is used to determine the direction of transmissions?

A. Ether type field

B. P bit

C. D bit

D. Looped filter bit

What are the benefits of virtualized switch chassis? (Choose four)

A. Supervisor redundancy in the control plane

B. Forwarding and fabric ASIC redundancy in the data plane

C. Power and fan supply redundancy

D. Isolated and redundant fabric paths

E. Isolated physical interfaces

Select the statements that describe the role of the vPC peer link in vPC data plane operations. (Choose two)

A. It is used to carry regular data traffic for vPCs

B. Frames that enter a vPC peer switch from the peer link, exit the switch on a vPC member port

C. Regular switch MAC address learning is replaced with Cisco Fabric Services-based MAC address learning for vPCs

D. It is used to carry vPC control and flooded traffic

Which two commands can be used on a vPC peer switch to determine whether it has been elected the primary vPC switch or the secondary vPC switch? (Choose two)

A. show vpc statistics

B. show vpc consistency-parameters

C. show vpc role

D. show vpc brief

What per VSAN information is maintained by the VSAN Manager? (Choose four)

A. Name of the VSAN

B. Fibre Channel timers that is used for each VSAN

C. State of the VSAN

D. Operational state of the VSAN

E. Buffer-to-buffer credit allocation that is used for each VSAN

F. Load-balancing scheme that is used for each VSAN

Identify the options that describe the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series power supply capabilities. (Choose three)

A. The power supplies modules have a temperature sensor and instrumentation to prevent damage due to overheating

B. There are five redundancy modes that are available for power supplies on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches

C. When installing redundant Cisco Nexus 7000 Series power supplies, they must be exact and cannot be dissimilar power supply types

D. Each 10-slot chassis can hold up to three load-sharing, fault-tolerant, and hot-swappable power supply modules

E. The modules are hot-swappable with no downtime when replacing power supply modules

Identify the options that describe OTV control plane operations. (Choose three)

A. MAC addresses are advertised in the background once the OTV has been configured

B. There is no dependency with the Layer 3 routing protocol used in the transport infrastructure

C. OTV depends on flooding to propagate MAC address reachability information

D. OTV uses IS-IS as the control protocol between the edge devices

E. The OTV control plane overlay interface requires explicit configuration

Which describes a feature of the Ethernet port roles?

A. Port modes cannot be changed

B. Physical ports cannot be changed

C. Port roles can be unconfigured

D. Ports can have multiple roles

Which part sets the FCoE model apart from the FC model?

A. ULP Mapping

B. Generic Services

C. Ethernet Media Access Control

D. Framing & Flow Control

What should you consider when implementing host-based virtualization? (Choose two)

A. This solution is vendor-proprietary and difficult to manage in a heterogeneous SAN

B. It is licensed on a per-host basis and can be expensive

C. The virtualization software is complex and must trap and redirect every frame before it reaches the storage target

D. It can have scalability issues and can be a single point of failure if the devices are not clustered

How can vPC peer switches using STP present themselves as a single logical switch to devices? (Choose two)

A. If the peer-switch option is not used, the primary switch generates and processes BPDUs and uses its own bridge ID for the BPDUs. The secondary switch only relays BPDUs.

B. A system ID is generated from a reserved pool of MAC addresses and combined with the vPC domain ID.

C. If the peer-switch option is used, both switches generate and process BPDUs. Both switches use the same bridge ID.

D. If the peer-switch option is not used, the primary switch generates and processes BPDUs and uses its own bridge ID for the BPDUs. The secondary switch generates BPDUs, but does not relay them.

Cisco test CCNA 640-916

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