CCNA DC Technologies Practice Test

Identify the statements that best describe how FabricPath uses the IS-IS protocol for control plane operations. (Choose two)

A. Layer 2 IS-IS is used as the control protocol for the Cisco FabricPath

B. Using custom TTL settings IS-IS devices can exchange information about virtually anything

C. There is no need to run STP with Cisco FabricPath and Layer 2 IS-IS

D. There is a requirement for IP reachability in order to form adjacency between devices

Which three components are part of the I/O module? (Choose three)

A. N55-D160L3 daughter card

B. Unified port controller

C. Chassis management controller

D. Virtual interface card

E. I/O multiplexer

F. Chassis management switch

Which statement is true if you mix DIMMs of different speeds in a Cisco UCS B-Series server?

A. The memory bus will operate at the highest common denominator.

B. The DIMMs will be subject to damage or destruction by ESD.

C. The memory bus will operate at the lowest common denominator.

D. The DIMMs will be subject to damage or destruction by overheating.

Which is a feature of the UCS C220 M3 rack server?

A. Two PCIe third generation slots

B. One built-in RAID

C. Four hard drives

D. Up to 384 GB

Which process allows an N Port to exchange the information about the ULP support with its target N Port, to ensure that the initiator and target process can communicate?

A. PLOGI

B. FLOGI

C. PRLI

D. PRLO

What should you consider when implementing host-based virtualization? (Choose two)

A. This solution is vendor-proprietary and difficult to manage in a heterogeneous SAN

B. It is licensed on a per-host basis and can be expensive

C. The virtualization software is complex and must trap and redirect every frame before it reaches the storage target

D. It can have scalability issues and can be a single point of failure if the devices are not clustered

Which option is a key feature of Cisco UCSM?

A. Centralized license management for all Cisco MDS switches

B. Lights-out RMON of the supervisor module

C. Bandwidth management

D. Automated device discovery

What is the purpose of a MAC address pool?

A. Provides addresses for service profiles

B. Ensures that every NIC in your environment gets a unique MAC address

C. Filters MAC addresses to protect the network

D. Blacklists known MAC addresses of attackers

Identify the characteristics of the FEX operation. (Choose three)

A. FEXs are considered switching devices

B. FEXs are managed and configured from the Cisco Nexus switch

C. FEXs can be deployed with the 7000 switch that combines the advantages of a ToR design with the advantages of an EoR design

D. FEXs serve as remote line cards of a Cisco Nexus 5000 or 7000 Series Switch

E. Various configuration or software maintenance tasks are associated with FEXs

Which two statements describe host-based virtualization? (Choose two)

A. It is independent of the underlying SAN technology.

B. Virtualization is provided within the Fibre Channel switch.

C. It is proprietary to the storage platform used.

D. It requires a special software driver.

E. It provides high performance and scalability.

Which is a feature of parity?

A. Uses more storage than mirroring

B. Needs twice the amount of hard-drives

C. Generally costs more than mirroring

D. Uses one disk as a parity

Cisco Nexus 1000V provides VMs with dedicated switch ports using which technology?

A. VEM

B. VDC

C. VSS

D. VSM

Which part sets the FCoE model apart from the FC model?

A. ULP Mapping

B. Generic Services

C. Ethernet Media Access Control

D. Framing & Flow Control

Which situation is not applicable to the Unified Fabric Data Center?

A. Less framework components

B. Less switches

C. Less network adapters

D. Less distribution layers

Which options describe Cisco MDS 9500 Series power supply capabilities? (Choose three)

A. Power is reserved for the supervisor and fan assemblies only in redundant mode

B. In combined mode, the chassis uses twice the power capacity of the lower-capacity power supply modules

C. Power supply modules are configured in combined mode by default

D. Each supervisor module is allocated 220 W in reserve

E. In redundant mode, the chassis uses the power capacity of the lower-capacity power supply module

What are the characteristics of LUN masking? (Choose two)

A. It allows LUNs to be selectively zoned to their appropriate host port

B. It is used in the storage array to mask or hide LUNs from servers that are denied access

C. It allows the administrator to selectively map some LUNs that have been discovered by the HBA

D. It allows the storage array to make specific LUNs available to server ports identified by their pWWN

For how many days may licensed features be evaluated on the Cisco MDS Series switch?

A. 60

B. 120

C. 30

D. 90

How do device aliases simplify the SAN configuration? (Choose four)

A. Ensures no reconfiguration is required when a device is moved across VSANs

B. Device aliases permits the importing of legacy Fibre Channel alias definitions

C. Device aliases have support for 8912 device aliases fabric-wide

D. Helps to avoid misconfiguration of features that require device name assignment

E. Device aliases are independent of VSAN and zoning configurations

F. Device aliases support three operational modes for ease of configuration

Which command is entered on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM to verify whether configuration parameters can be pushed to vCenter?

A. show svs connections

B. vemcmd show port

C. vem status

D. show module vem map

Which vPC component is referred to as a device that is connected to a vPC peer using a non-vPC link?

A. vPC peer

B. Orphan device

C. Orphan port

D. vPC domain

Which product has a fixed module and one slot for an I/O module?

A. Cisco MDS 9148 Multilayer Fabric Switch

B. Cisco MDS 9222i Multiservice Modular Switch

C. Cisco MDS 9506 Multilayer Director Switch

D. Cisco MDS 9124 Multilayer Fabric Switch

What has improved the load balancing routine used by the Cisco Nexus 5000 and 7000 Series switches by controlling propagation of broadcast frames?

A. EtherChannel load balancing

B. Gateway Load Balancing Protocol

C. VMware ESX Server

D. Microsoft Network Load Balancing

A word is the smallest unit of data that a Fibre Channel uses.

How many bits does a word consist of?

A. 128

B. 64

C. 16

D. 32

What options describe the software-based iSCSI model? (Choose three)

A. It is typically used to provide a low-cost but high latency solution

B. iSCSI driver performs all SCSI processing, TCP/IP processing, and error recovery

C. iSCSI is a network service that is enabled via the use of an iSCSI software driver and optional hardware

D. It is typically used to provide a low-cost high performance solution or low latency

What are the characteristics of the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series switch? (Choose two)

A. It has a different feature set compared to Cisco or Nexus physical switches

B. It uses the same remote management as Cisco or Nexus physical switches

C. Its expanded feature set includes PVLANs

D. It is the same as vSwitch in ESX 3.5

Which is a feature of the B440 M2 Blade Server model?

A. Half-slot form factor

B. Can support four CPUs

C. Single mezzanine adapter slot

D. Maximum RAM of 512 GB

Fibre Channel ports are intelligent interface points on the Fibre Channel SAN.

Select the devices Fibre Channel ports are found embedded in. (Choose three)

A. Array controller

B. USB drive

C. I/O adapter

D. Switched fabric

Which component combination is required to enable adapter port channels to work?

A. 6120XP and 2204XP

B. 6296UP and 2104XP

C. 6248UP and 2208XP

D. 6140XP and 2104XP

Which options describe the VDC capabilities? (Choose four)

A. Within each VDC is a set of unique and independent VLANs and VRFs

B. Because VDCs are independent, VLAN numbers and VRF names can be reused in different VDCs

C. There is an internal connection between the VLANs and VRFs in different VDCs

D. VLANs and VRFs in different VDCs are strictly isolated

E. VDCs have access to the resources that are allocated to them and can also access resources located in other VDCs

F. VDC 1 is the default VDC which is responsible for creating and managing other VDCs

How is zoning used to provide security and restrict access? (Choose four)

A. Zoning can be used to separate devices into departmental, administrative, and other functional groupings

B. Zoning can be used to separate devices that use different OSs to protect the overwriting of storage disks

C. Zones restrict communication between devices in different Fibre Channel fabric

D. A zoning security map dictates which devices can see which targets reducing the risk of data loss

E. Zoning can be used to separate devices that have no need to communicate with other devices in the fabric or that has classified data

What options are considered Cisco Nexus 7000 Series high availability features? (Choose three)

A. Service modularity

B. RBAC

C. Cooling subsystem

D. Dual redundant supervisors

E. Independent system management busses

What must be created and bound to the Ethernet interface for each of the FCF-connected Ethernet interfaces when configuring multihop FCoE?

A. VN Port

B. vFC interface

C. Fabric interface

D. VE Port

Which is a memory population guideline to follow?

A. Mix DIMMS in the same channel

B. Minimize read/write of memory and CPU

C. Do not fill all the memory channel slots

D. Take electric discharge precautions

How many sequences make up a single exchange in a SCSI-FCP write operation?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 1

D. 4

Which of these data center related components typically would not be used in the SAN infrastructure design?

A. Access

B. Aggregation

C. Core

D. Collapsed core

Which part of the Fibre Channel over Ethernet encapsulation is used to set the FCoE traffic?

A. IEEE 802.1Q tag

B. Reserve fields

C. Encapsulated FC Frame

D. FIP

What statements describe infrastructure consolidation in the data center? (Choose three)

A. Consolidation can add flexibility to the data center design

B. Consolidation of multiple logical switches on one physical switch can be implemented to improve hardware utilization

C. Through the use of partitioning, consolidation of different logical zones onto one physical infrastructure can be accomplished

D. The use of VLANs and virtual router forwarding provide separation of administration and management functions or isolation of fault domains

Where does the UCS Manager run?

A. Fabric Interconnect

B. I/O module

C. UCS C-Series

D. UCS B-Series

Which is a feature of RAID 6?

A. Uses single parity

B. Utilizes mirroring

C. Uses double parity

D. Performance enhancement

Which vSwitch component acts as a switch uplink and provides connectivity to the external network?

A. Port group

B. Physical NIC

C. Physical switch

D. vNIC

What is a virtual interface that migrates along with a VM and virtual network link called?

A. Floating vEth interface

B. Static vNIC

C. Fixed vEth interface

D. Dynamic vNIC

Which options describe the fabric extender connectivity? (Choose four)

A. Port extension allows the fabric extender to act as a data path extension of the parent switch

B. Forwarding can be performed by any switch in the domain

C. All control and management functions are performed by the parent switch

D. Forwarding from and to a FEX is based on a VNTag

E. The link(s) between the fabric extender and the upstream switch multiplex the traffic from multiple devices that connect to the FEX

F. Physical host extender interfaces are represented with physical interfaces on the parent switch

Identify the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches access roles. (Choose four)

A. VDC-admin

B. VDC-operator

C. Admin-operator

D. Network-operator

E. Network-admin

F. Admin-VDC

Identify the statements that describe the function of the "feature" command. (Choose three)

A. Issuing the feature fcoe command makes all Fibre Channel interface types available

B. The "show running-config | include feature" command is used to determine the features that are currently enabled on the switch

C. Interfaces, protocols, and their related configuration contexts are not visible until the feature is enabled on the Cisco Nexus platform

D. In the default configuration, all features are enabled on the switch such as telnet and lldp

Which is utilized by the active/active FEX deployment model?

A. Static Pinning

B. Virtual port channels

C. Straight-through connectivity

D. Dynamic Pinning

Which is one of the main benefit(s) of using pools with the mobile service profiles?

A. Provide redundancy on your servers

B. Static assignment of what UCS needs for provisioning

C. Ensure uniqueness of identities

D. Allow for the ability to manually administer MAC addresses

Which of the following FEX deployments provides the most redundant topology?

A. Active/active model

B. Dynamic Pinning model

C. Active/passive model

D. Static Pinning model

What are the benefits of using the Fibre Channel? (Choose four)

A. Support for multiple protocols

B. Supports the shared transport option only

C. Provides host speed of 800 MB/s

D. Addressing for as many as 16 million nodes

E. Segment distances of as far as 3.2 miles

F. Combines the benefits of a channel and a network

Which command, issued on a Cisco Nexus 7000 series switch, is used to verify that local and remote MAC addresses are learned for the Cisco FabricPath VLANs?

A. show mac address-table

B. show vpc brief

C. show fabricpath route

D. show otv route

What is a feature of the active/standby topology?

A. Is able to scale up well

B. Performs clash avoidance

C. Server connected to two 5Ks

D. Does not provide any fail-safe

What options describe the characteristics of block-based protocols? (Choose three)

A. SCSI has a very high latency when transporting data

B. SCSI can be transported using two specific methods

C. Fibre Channel cable is considered to have lossless delivery method

D. FCoE transport replaces Fibre Channel cabling with 10-Gb Ethernet cables and provides lossless delivery over unified I/O

E. SCSI is a block-based protocol for writing and reading data blocks to and from a storage device

What should you consider when using Hyper-V instead of VMware? (Choose two)

A. Multiple hosts cannot access the same LUN on SAN storage

B. A virtualized partition has access to the physical processor

C. It uses cluster-shared volumes storage to support live migration of Hyper-V VMs from one Hyper-V server to another

D. It isolates VM operating systems from one another through partitioning or logical isolation

What are port profiles used for? (Choose two)

A. To manually configure an interface

B. To correspond to port groups in VMware

C. To configure interfaces in the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series switch with a common set of configuration commands

D. To assign network settings to VMs and uplink ports

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