CCNA DC Technologies Practice Test

Which of the following FEX deployments provides the most redundant topology?

A. Active/active model

B. Dynamic Pinning model

C. Active/passive model

D. Static Pinning model

Select the options that describe the capabilities of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series I/O modules. (Choose two)

A. The F-Series I/O modules are the most flexible and performance driven modules for the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series

B. The F1-Series 32-Port 1 and 10 Gigabit Ethernet Module has 720 mpps Layer 2 and Layer 3 forwarding capacity for both IPv4 and IPv6

C. The F1-Series modules have support for Layer 3 functions without the addition of extra M modules

D. The F2-Series 48-Port 1 and 10 Gigabit Ethernet Module can support up to 550 GB/s of speed on the switch fabric interface

Which three statements concerning zoning are true? (Choose three)

A. RSCN message flooding restricts the size of a zone.

B. Zoning configuration changes are disruptive.

C. Fabric availability is limited.

D. There are a limited number of devices supported per zone.

E. Zoning does not support overlapping zones.

After completing the fabric login, or the FLOGI process, the N Port can log in to another N Port by using which protocol?

A. PRLO

B. ACC

C. PRLI

D. PLOGI

What is used to provide Equal-Cost Multipath (ECMP) load balancing in the data plane to allow the use of all the links that are available between a client and server?

A. VN-Link

B. Zoning

C. Cisco FabricPath

D. VSM

Which options best describe how Cisco Nexus B22 Series Blade Fabric Extenders simplify data center server access and operations? (Choose three)

A. There is one single point of management and policy enforcement on the B22 making the commissioning and decommissioning of blades through zero-touch installation and automatic configuration of FEXs easy to do

B. The B22 behave like remote line cards for a parent Cisco Nexus switch and together form a centralized modular system

C. The Cisco Nexus B22 Series Blade Fabric Extenders provide one type of port known as uplink ports

D. The B22 is capable of consolidation, cabling reduction, and investment protection through feature inheritance from the parent switch

E. The B22 have a distributed modular system that creates a scalable server access environment with no reliance on STP that provide consistency between blade and rack servers

Identify the options that describe the Fibre Channel technology. (Choose three)

A. Fibre Channel relies on upper-layer protocols (ULPs) to provide reliability and redelivery of traffic

B. Fibre Channel combines the best of the SCSI and Ethernet worlds

C. Fibre Channel is the transport technology that is most commonly used for SANs

D. Fibre Channel is a technology for transporting data between devices

Which type of virtualization requires some guest software to be modified to run in the environment?

A. Partial virtualization

B. Host-operating system-based virtualization

C. Bare metal virtualization

D. Paravirtualization

Which two are reasons why LAN and SAN infrastructures have traditionally been separated? (Choose two)

A. Flow control

B. Security

C. Aggregation

D. Latency

What are the features of the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series switch virtualization solution? (Choose two)

A. This series of switches can be introduced to an existing virtual environment

B. It provides port-based connectivity of VMs

C. When migrating a VM to another host, only security policies do not require network reconfiguration

D. A network administrator can apply a policy to the VM level

Which IEEE standard enables devices to communicate parameters with each other?

A. Enhanced Transmission Selection

B. Data Center Bridging Exchange

C. Priority Flow Control

D. Link-Level Flow Control

What options describe the capacities of the Cisco Nexus 7000 18-Slot Series chassis? (Choose three)

A. All system components can easily be removed with the cabling in place, providing ease of maintenance tasks with minimal disruption

B. 18-Slot Switch chassis with up to 16 I/O module slots

C. Supports up to 768x1 and 10 Gigabit Ethernet ports

D. A front-to-back airflow to address the requirements for hot-aisle and cold-aisle deployments without additional complexity

Identify the limitations and restrictions when completing the Cisco NX-OS ISSU on the Nexus 7000. (Choose three)

A. Any changes in the network settings may cause a disruptive upgrade

B. It does not change any configuration settings or network connections during the upgrade

C. The software upgrade may be disruptive when a single supervisor system with kickstart or system image changes

D. A blocked configuration mode during the Cisco ISSU software upgrade does not prevent changes

Identify the VDC deployment models. (Choose three)

A. Service insertion where management and control is separated for access and aggregation layers

B. Bus topology where virtual devices are daisy-chained on a parallel bus

C. Dual core where two redundant data center cores use only a pair of Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches

D. Multiple aggregation blocks where separate aggregation blocks are deployed for different business units or functions

Which best describes upstream connections to the Layer 3 LAN domain and the Fibre Channel SAN edge switch?

A. Fibre Channel dedicated ports go to SAN

B. Fibre Channel dedicated ports go to LAN

C. Fibre Channel dedicated ports go to 5k

D. 5K dedicated ports go to SAN

Which of the following is used to establish the Fibre Channel virtual links?

A. FCoE logical End Point

B. Fibre Channel Forwarder

C. ENode

D. FCoE initialization protocol

What statements describe the features of the Connectivity Management Processor (CMP)? (Choose four)

A. The CMP has the capability to initiate a complete system restart that requires local operator intervention

B. The CMP has dedicated front-panel LEDs so CMP status is clearly identified separately from the supervisor

C. The CMP has a dedicated operating environment that is independent remote system management monitoring capabilities

D. The CMP provides in-band management and monitoring capability independent from the primary operating system

E. CMP can monitor the supervisor status and initiate resets, removing the need for separate terminal server devices for OOB management

F. CMP can complete a system reset while retaining OOB Ethernet connectivity with complete visibility during the entire boot process

Select the statements that describe the role of the vPC peer link in vPC data plane operations. (Choose two)

A. It is used to carry regular data traffic for vPCs

B. Frames that enter a vPC peer switch from the peer link, exit the switch on a vPC member port

C. Regular switch MAC address learning is replaced with Cisco Fabric Services-based MAC address learning for vPCs

D. It is used to carry vPC control and flooded traffic

Which is a feature of RAID 0+1?

A. Improves read performance

B. Features low input/ output rates

C. Cheaper alternative to RAID 0

D. Provides a low fault tolerance

Which two actions should be done before you apply power to the initial Cisco UCS Manager configuration? (Choose two)

A. Connect the cables between the chassis and fabric interconnects.

B. Connect the northbound server ports and southbound uplink ports.

C. Connect the links of all I/O modules to both fabric interconnects.

D. Connect the fabric interconnects' L1 and L2 ports.

Which is a base feature of the Cisco UCS 6248UP?

A. Supports one Expansion slot

B. 96-port fabric interconnect

C. 48 Fixed 10-GB interfaces

D. Two RU Form Factor

Which vPC component is referred to as a device that is connected to a vPC peer using a non-vPC link?

A. vPC peer

B. Orphan device

C. Orphan port

D. vPC domain

Which technology enables you to create multiple logical switches on the same Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?

A. VDCs

B. VN-Link

C. VNTag

D. vPC peer links

Which FEX would you need to use with a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch if you need support for 8 FEX fabric interfaces?

A. 2248TP-E

B. 2148T

C. 2232PP

D. 2224TP GE

How many physical servers can be connected to a single 5K using the Cisco Nexus 2232 10-GB E Fabric Extender and not including a Layer 3 card?

A. 768

B. 32

C. 8

D. 256

What are the characteristics of LUN storage virtualization? (Choose two)

A. The back-end resource is presented to the host system for use

B. You can have multiple layers of virtualization or mapping

C. It helps to provide location independence by abstracting the physical location of data

D. The front-end volume is not presented to the host system for use

Which interface is used to carry CDP packets from a VEM to a VSM?

A. Packet interface

B. Fixed vEth interface

C. Control interface

D. Floating vEth interface

Which part of the Fibre Channel over Ethernet encapsulation is used to set the FCoE traffic?

A. IEEE 802.1Q tag

B. Reserve fields

C. Encapsulated FC Frame

D. FIP

Which option best describes the function of Cisco Fabric Services in a vPC domain?

A. Synchronizes vPC control plane information

B. Assists in the election of the vPC primary switch

C. Synchronizes vPC data plane information

D. Synchronizes vPC control and data plane information

Which vPC component provides a Layer 3 communication path used as a secondary test to determine whether the remote peer is operating properly?

A. vPC link

B. vPC peer link

C. vPC peer

D. vPC peer keepalive

How can VSANs increase the efficiency of a SAN fabric? (Choose four)

A. They allow for fewer less costly redundant fabrics to be built and provide an island-like isolation

B. When a VSAN is created, a separate set of Cisco Fabric Services, configuration management capability, and policies are created within the new VSAN

C. Each separate virtual fabric is isolated by using a software-based frame tagging mechanism on VSAN member ports and EISL links

D. Spare ports within the fabric can be quickly and non-disruptively assigned to existing VSANs, providing a clean method of virtually growing application-specific SAN islands

E. They alleviate the need to build multiple physically isolated fabrics to meet organizational or application needs

F. VSANs provide only hardware-based isolation

What is a feature of the UCS P81E virtual interface card?

A. Is used for physical connections

B. Enables use of Ethernet

C. Establishes 28 virtual connections

D. Optimizes bandwidth

When creating service profiles from a template, what options are initially available in the wizard? (Choose two)

A. Target pool

B. Server list

C. Naming suffix

D. Number

E. Naming prefix

Select the options that describe Fibre Channel addressing schemes. (Choose three)

A. The FC-AL topology uses an 8-bit addressing scheme

B. The Fibre Channel point-to-point topology uses a 1-bit addressing scheme

C. Fibre Channel addresses uses a 24-bit addressing scheme that consists of three 8-bit elements

D. A FC-AL has 127 usable addresses available for use on servers and storage devices

Select the statements that describe conversational MAC address learning. (Choose three)

A. With conversational MAC address learning, each interface learns the MAC addresses for only the interested hosts

B. All Cisco FabricPath VLANs use conversational MAC address learning

C. With conversational MAC address learning each interface learns all MAC addresses in the domain

D. It permits the scaling of the network beyond the limits of individual switch MAC address tables

E. Classical Ethernet VLANs do not use traditional MAC address learning by default

What options describe how multihoming is automated with OTV? (Choose two)

A. The AED role is configured on a per-VLAN basis between all the OTV edge devices belonging to the same site

B. The AED forwards Layer 2 unicast, multicast, and broadcast traffic between the site and the overlay, and vice versa

C. Multihoming sites to an overlay must be configured

D. OTV has a built-in mechanism that ensures only one of the edge devices will forward traffic for a given VLAN

E. OTV elects one of the edge devices to be the authoritative edge device (AED) for a subset of the extended VLANs

Which is a feature of the B440 M2 Blade Server model?

A. Half-slot form factor

B. Can support four CPUs

C. Single mezzanine adapter slot

D. Maximum RAM of 512 GB

Which option is used to provide virtual machine intelligence, automation, performance, and scalability to the virtual data center?

A. FCF

B. FIP

C. VSM

D. ACE

How does the flow control improve performance under high traffic loads? (Choose three)

A. A credit-based flow control strategy prevents frames from being lost when the Tx Port runs out of free buffers

B. Using flow control, the Tx Port sends frames only when it knows that the Rx Port can accept them

C. A credit-based flow control strategy ensures that the Tx Port is always in control

D. Preventing lost frames maximizes performance under high-traffic load conditions because the Tx Port does not need to resend frames

E. Using a credit-based flow control, the receiver must issue a credit for each frame that the transmitter sends before at frame can be sent

Which is one of the main benefit(s) of using pools with the mobile service profiles?

A. Provide redundancy on your servers

B. Static assignment of what UCS needs for provisioning

C. Ensure uniqueness of identities

D. Allow for the ability to manually administer MAC addresses

Which option is an alternative to the three-tier architecture for small campus networks?

A. SAN island

B. VDCs

C. Device virtualization

D. Collapsed core

How does FabricPath handle equal cost path links? (Choose three)

A. Reliable Layer 2 and Layer 3 connectivity is provided using STP inside the FabricPath

B. FabricPath supports up to 16 ECMP links that can be active between any two devices

C. Upon a failure, traffic is redistributed across remaining links providing fast convergence

D. Using ECMP at the data plane, the network can use all the links that are available between any two devices

Identify the options that describe capabilities of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Supervisor Module. (Choose three)

A. Can be upgraded to support Cisco Unified Fabric technology

B. Centralized forwarding architecture enabling independent upgrades of the supervisor and fabric

C. Contains a built-in packet capture and protocol decoding tool allows the analysis of control plane traffic

D. Continuous system operation with the help of active and standby supervisors

E. Uses CMP to provide a complete OOB management and monitoring capability independent from the primary operating system

Which three pieces of information are maintained by the VSAN Manager about each VSAN? (Choose three)

A. State of the VSAN

B. Buffer-to-buffer credit allocation

C. The load-balancing scheme used

D. Name of the VSAN

E. The Fibre Channel timers

Which part sets the FCoE model apart from the FC model?

A. ULP Mapping

B. Generic Services

C. Ethernet Media Access Control

D. Framing & Flow Control

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