CCNA DC Technologies Practice Test

Which two statements describe an overlay interface and how it is used? (Choose two)

A. It is a logical multiaccess and multicast-capable interface.

B. The entire OTV overlay configuration is applied to the physical interface.

C. Layer 2 frames are logically forwarded to the overlay interface.

D. It operates at Layer 3 of the OSI model.

Which options describe the Layer 3 daughter card for the Cisco Nexus 5548 switch? (Choose two)

A. There is no requirement to power down the switch before installing the Layer 3 daughter card

B. The Layer 3 daughter card is also known and considered as a GEM

C. The N55-D160L3 is the Layer 3 daughter card that can be installed in any Cisco Nexus 5500 Series switch

D. Layer 3 support is enabled via a field-upgradable routing card that can be installed while the switch remains rack mounted

Which option best describes the function of Cisco Fabric Services in a vPC domain?

A. Synchronizes vPC control plane information

B. Assists in the election of the vPC primary switch

C. Synchronizes vPC data plane information

D. Synchronizes vPC control and data plane information

Which is most applicable when dividing fibre connectivity?

A. Singlemode fibre

B. Passive Twinax

C. Multimode fibre

D. Active Twinax

Which options influence the data center design? (Choose four)

A. Architectures that can distribute Layer 2 traffic on all available links

B. The need for a higher level of reliability, with minimized downtime for updates and configuration changes

C. The need to decrease computing power at a lower cost

D. The need to reduce overall power consumption in the data center

E. The need to optimize computing resources by increasing the rate of growth of physical computing nodes

F. Architectures capable of supporting a SAN and a LAN on the same network for server consolidation

Which of the following can be verified by the "vemcmd show card" command? (Choose two)

A. Control and packet VLANs

B. VSM port

C. VEM control agent MAC ID

D. Card name and domain ID

E. VEM port

Which command would you use to ping host 172.16.1.42 from the management interface of the Cisco Nexus 7010?

A. ping 172.16.1.42

B. ping vrf mgmt 172.16.1.42

C. ping 172.16.1.42 vrf default

D. ping 172.16.1.42 vrf management

Which options describe M1 module support features? (Choose two)

A. M1-Series 8-Port 10 Gigabit Ethernet Module provides the same features as the N7K-M132XP-12 including oversubscription at the front panel

B. The M1 module supports layer 2 and layer 3 functions

C. All 7000 M Series of forwarding engines contain the M1 forwarding engine

D. The M1 Series modules support up to 550 Gb/s of speed on the switch fabric interface

What is used to restrict access between initiators and targets within a single fabric?

A. FLOGI

B. VSAN

C. LUN masking

D. Zoning

Which two statements describe Wide Area Application Service (WAAS) support in the Data Center? (Choose two)

A. Service devices that are deployed in the distribution layer benefit only the servers that are directly attached to the specific distribution switch.

B. Using a dual-homing NIC in the access layer requires a VLAN or trunk link between the two access switches.

C. Deploying WAAS in the distribution layer may impose a large STP processing load.

D. The data center access layer requires Layer 2 connectivity.

E. Security and application service devices are typically deployed as modules in the access layer.

What statements describe the features of the Connectivity Management Processor (CMP)? (Choose four)

A. The CMP has the capability to initiate a complete system restart that requires local operator intervention

B. The CMP has dedicated front-panel LEDs so CMP status is clearly identified separately from the supervisor

C. The CMP has a dedicated operating environment that is independent remote system management monitoring capabilities

D. The CMP provides in-band management and monitoring capability independent from the primary operating system

E. CMP can monitor the supervisor status and initiate resets, removing the need for separate terminal server devices for OOB management

F. CMP can complete a system reset while retaining OOB Ethernet connectivity with complete visibility during the entire boot process

Which method of preventing the same volume being accessed by more than one filesystem allows LUNs to be seen only by selected servers identified by their pWWN?

A. LUN masking

B. LUN zoning

C. LUN mapping

Which two are instances when the setup utility can be run on a Cisco Nexus 7000 or 5000 Series switch? (Choose two)

A. Any time before the POST has been started

B. Any time after the initial setup has been completed

C. When no operating system exists

D. When no configuration exists

Which tool is used to reacknowledge the chassis state?

A. Fabric interconnect

B. Finite state machine

C. I/O module

D. RAID controllers

Which describes a feature of the Ethernet port roles?

A. Port modes cannot be changed

B. Physical ports cannot be changed

C. Port roles can be unconfigured

D. Ports can have multiple roles

Which is the expansion port that is only available when referring to generation 2 Fabric Interconnects?

A. 16-port Unified Port Expansion Module

B. 48-port Unified Port Expansion Module

C. 8-port Unified Port Expansion Module

D. 32-port Unified Port Expansion Module

Which is a feature of RAID 5?

A. Provides two disk redundancy

B. Stores parity in one disk

C. Performs 4 I/O per write update

D. Greatly improved write performance

Select the options that describe Fibre Channel addressing schemes. (Choose three)

A. The FC-AL topology uses an 8-bit addressing scheme

B. The Fibre Channel point-to-point topology uses a 1-bit addressing scheme

C. Fibre Channel addresses uses a 24-bit addressing scheme that consists of three 8-bit elements

D. A FC-AL has 127 usable addresses available for use on servers and storage devices

Which statement correctly describes the 6248UP Series fabric interconnect cluster connectivity?

A. L1 and L2 located in front of the chassis

B. L1s must be connected to L2s

C. Requires category 3 Ethernet cables

D. L2s must connect to L2s

How does the Cisco Nexus 1000V switch operate? (Choose two)

A. The show module command displays supervisors and line cards like the VMware vSwitch

B. It behaves as if it were a physical device with multiple subinterfaces

C. The show module command displays supervisors and line cards like the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch

D. It behaves as if it were a physical device with multiple line cards

Which vPC component provides a Layer 3 communication path used as a secondary test to determine whether the remote peer is operating properly?

A. vPC link

B. vPC peer link

C. vPC peer

D. vPC peer keepalive

Select the statements that describe conversational MAC address learning. (Choose three)

A. With conversational MAC address learning, each interface learns the MAC addresses for only the interested hosts

B. All Cisco FabricPath VLANs use conversational MAC address learning

C. With conversational MAC address learning each interface learns all MAC addresses in the domain

D. It permits the scaling of the network beyond the limits of individual switch MAC address tables

E. Classical Ethernet VLANs do not use traditional MAC address learning by default

Which interface is used to carry CDP packets from a VEM to a VSM?

A. Packet interface

B. Fixed vEth interface

C. Control interface

D. Floating vEth interface

In UCS Manager, which tab would you look for to find the FSM discovery detail option?

A. General

B. Fabric ports

C. Events

D. FSM

Which option is used to provide virtual machine intelligence, automation, performance, and scalability to the virtual data center?

A. FCF

B. FIP

C. VSM

D. ACE

How can vPC peer switches using STP present themselves as a single logical switch to devices? (Choose two)

A. If the peer-switch option is not used, the primary switch generates and processes BPDUs and uses its own bridge ID for the BPDUs. The secondary switch only relays BPDUs.

B. A system ID is generated from a reserved pool of MAC addresses and combined with the vPC domain ID.

C. If the peer-switch option is used, both switches generate and process BPDUs. Both switches use the same bridge ID.

D. If the peer-switch option is not used, the primary switch generates and processes BPDUs and uses its own bridge ID for the BPDUs. The secondary switch generates BPDUs, but does not relay them.

Which of the following does the Data Center Bridging Exchange Protocol rely on to transmit information to devices?

A. Enhanced Transmission Selection

B. Virtual Forwarder

C. Link Level Flow Control

D. Link Layer Discovery Protocol

Identify the options that describe the capacities of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Fabric Modules. (Choose two)

A. Provides a central switching element that allows fully distributed forwarding on the I/O modules

B. Support for lossless Ethernet and unified I/O capabilities

C. Switch fabric scalability made possible through the support of eight concurrently active fabric modules

D. Up to six simultaneously active fabric modules that can work together to deliver up to 230 Gb/s - 550 Gb/s per slot

Which situation is not applicable to the Unified Fabric Data Center?

A. Less framework components

B. Less switches

C. Less network adapters

D. Less distribution layers

Which two statements describe the configuration of a zone set? (Choose two)

A. When you initially create a new zone set, it becomes a part of the full zone set.

B. You need to copy the configuration to the startup configuration after initially activating a new zone.

C. The active zone set cannot be modified.

D. Zone set configurations are local to each switch.

What is responsible for performing the encapsulation and decapsulation that is necessary to transport Fibre Channel frames over Ethernet?

A. ENode

B. FIP

C. FCoE_LEP

D. FCF

Which technology combines the reliability and scalability benefits of Layer 3 routing with the flexibility of Layer 2 networks?

A. Cisco FabricPath

B. Device virtualization

C. Cisco UCS

D. Cisco ISSU

What are the benefits of server virtualization? (Choose two)

A. It allows you to place servers in different physical locations

B. You can have multiple instances of the same type of operating system running in parallel on one server

C. The virtualization layer provides uniformity of hardware to the installed operating system

D. It is independent of storage platform or SAN transport

Which is a feature of the VIC 1280?

A. Compatible with 6200 Fabric Interconnect

B. Includes a software-based failover

C. Provides two minute failover response time

D. Provides maximum 40 gigabits per second

Which of the following is used to establish the Fibre Channel virtual links?

A. FCoE logical End Point

B. Fibre Channel Forwarder

C. ENode

D. FCoE initialization protocol

What benefits does VMware provides within a data center environment? (Choose two)

A. VMs have separate hardware and drivers

B. Decreased resource utilization

C. Higher utilization of existing resources

D. Boot times are generally shorter

Which command is entered on the ESXi host to confirm which interface is used as the uplink?

A. vem status

B. show module

C. show svs connections

D. show module vem map

To which two types of networks can the Cisco UCS 6120XP fabric interconnect provide unified access? (Choose two)

A. LAN

B. SAN

C. WAN

D. MAN

Select the statements that describe the role of the vPC peer link in vPC data plane operations. (Choose two)

A. It is used to carry regular data traffic for vPCs

B. Frames that enter a vPC peer switch from the peer link, exit the switch on a vPC member port

C. Regular switch MAC address learning is replaced with Cisco Fabric Services-based MAC address learning for vPCs

D. It is used to carry vPC control and flooded traffic

Which of the following are the examples of management protocols available for UCS Manager? (Choose two)

A. NIPS

B. TCP

C. IPMI

D. CIM XML

E. NTP

What options describe the capacities of the Cisco Nexus 7000 18-Slot Series chassis? (Choose three)

A. All system components can easily be removed with the cabling in place, providing ease of maintenance tasks with minimal disruption

B. 18-Slot Switch chassis with up to 16 I/O module slots

C. Supports up to 768x1 and 10 Gigabit Ethernet ports

D. A front-to-back airflow to address the requirements for hot-aisle and cold-aisle deployments without additional complexity

Which two are reasons why LAN and SAN infrastructures have traditionally been separated? (Choose two)

A. Flow control

B. Security

C. Aggregation

D. Latency

Which two statements describe storage communications between initiators and targets? (Choose two)

A. LUN mapping controls paths between initiators and targets.

B. The client application resides on the target.

C. The initiator is typically a storage device.

D. LUN masking makes specific LUNs available to server ports.

Identify the statements that describe control, management, and data planes on Nexus 7000 and 5000 Series switches. (Choose four)

A. The UPC ASIC manages all packet-processing operations on ingress and egress interfaces

B. The UCF schedules and switches packets from ingress to egress UPCs and is simply known as "the fabric"

C. A set of unified port controllers (UPCs) are used to perform data plane processing

D. Cisco NX-OS provides isolation between control and data forwarding planes so that disruption within one plane does not disrupt the other

E. UCFs provide distributed packet forwarding capabilities

F. All port-to-port traffic passes through the UPC

Which is the first step that needs to be performed when configuring FEX on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switches?

A. Configure all the FEX fabric links to belong to each of the VDCs that will be used.

B. Install the FEX feature set in the default VDC.

C. Configure dynamic pinning.

D. Configure a port channel for the FEX fabric interfaces.

Which module component enables keyboard and mouse functions?

A. Chassis Management Switch

B. UCS Manager

C. Integrated Management Controller

D. Chassis Management Controller

Cisco test CCNA 640-916

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