CCNA DC Technologies Practice Test

Which is a feature of RAID 1?

A. Disks are independent

B. Reduced read performance

C. Provides limited redundancy

D. Data replicated among disks

Which best describes upstream connections to the Layer 3 LAN domain and the Fibre Channel SAN edge switch?

A. Fibre Channel dedicated ports go to SAN

B. Fibre Channel dedicated ports go to LAN

C. Fibre Channel dedicated ports go to 5k

D. 5K dedicated ports go to SAN

Identify the options that describe the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series power supply capabilities. (Choose three)

A. The power supplies modules have a temperature sensor and instrumentation to prevent damage due to overheating

B. There are five redundancy modes that are available for power supplies on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches

C. When installing redundant Cisco Nexus 7000 Series power supplies, they must be exact and cannot be dissimilar power supply types

D. Each 10-slot chassis can hold up to three load-sharing, fault-tolerant, and hot-swappable power supply modules

E. The modules are hot-swappable with no downtime when replacing power supply modules

Which is a feature of RAID 0?

A. Provides single disk redundancy

B. Reduces disk performance

C. Provides two disk redundancy

D. Data distributed among all disks

What is used to restrict access between initiators and targets within a single fabric?

A. FLOGI

B. VSAN

C. LUN masking

D. Zoning

Which two are instances when the setup utility can be run on a Cisco Nexus 7000 or 5000 Series switch? (Choose two)

A. Any time before the POST has been started

B. Any time after the initial setup has been completed

C. When no operating system exists

D. When no configuration exists

Select the options that describe Fibre Channel addressing schemes. (Choose three)

A. The FC-AL topology uses an 8-bit addressing scheme

B. The Fibre Channel point-to-point topology uses a 1-bit addressing scheme

C. Fibre Channel addresses uses a 24-bit addressing scheme that consists of three 8-bit elements

D. A FC-AL has 127 usable addresses available for use on servers and storage devices

Which three statements concerning zoning are true? (Choose three)

A. RSCN message flooding restricts the size of a zone.

B. Zoning configuration changes are disruptive.

C. Fabric availability is limited.

D. There are a limited number of devices supported per zone.

E. Zoning does not support overlapping zones.

What is responsible for performing the encapsulation and decapsulation that is necessary to transport Fibre Channel frames over Ethernet?

A. ENode

B. FIP

C. FCoE_LEP

D. FCF

Which is a base feature of the Cisco UCS 6248UP?

A. Supports three Expansion slots

B. 32 Fixed 10-GB interfaces

C. 96-port fabric interconnect

D. Two RU Form Factor

Which command would you use to display the isolated VSAN assignment on a switch?

A. show vsan membership

B. show fcns

C. show vsan

D. show flogi database

Which tasks is a hypervisor responsible for? (Choose two)

A. It provides connectivity between individual VMs

B. It stores or retrieves data directly across the SAN

C. It provides resources to individual operating systems

D. It intercepts the block I/O requests

What are the benefits that VMs have over physical devices? (Choose two)

A. They use operating systems differently than physical devices

B. They allow more efficient use of resources

C. They are extremely simple to back up, modify, or even duplicate

D. They do not require identifiers like MAC and IP addresses

Which is a feature of the B440 M2 Blade Server model?

A. Half-slot form factor

B. Can support four CPUs

C. Single mezzanine adapter slot

D. Maximum RAM of 512 GB

You are looking at Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Fabric Extender fabric port connectivity.

Which options describe the 7000 Series Fabric Extender fabric port connectivity? (Choose three)

A. When a FEX is connected to a 7000 Series Switch, it should be connected by using a 32-port 10-Gb/s M1 module

B. The FEX can be connected to any Cisco Nexus 7000 Series device in the domain

C. The failure of FEX uplinks or the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series will not cause the failure of server ports on the FEX

D. All FEX host ports belong to the same VDC to which the FEX fabric links are connected

E. Multiple FEX uplink ports can use the same 10-Gb/s ports group in shared rate mode on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series

Which type of virtualization requires some guest software to be modified to run in the environment?

A. Partial virtualization

B. Host-operating system-based virtualization

C. Bare metal virtualization

D. Paravirtualization

When planning storage virtualization, why would you consider using array-based virtualization? (Choose two)

A. You require storage platform independence

B. You require high performance and scalability

C. You require host platform independence

D. You require a software solution

Which command, issued on a Cisco Nexus 7000 series switch, is used to verify that local and remote MAC addresses are learned for the Cisco FabricPath VLANs?

A. show mac address-table

B. show vpc brief

C. show fabricpath route

D. show otv route

Which technology is used to enable the 5K to make forwarding decisions?

A. VN Tags

B. Fabric Extender Transceiver

C. VE ports

D. Virtual Interface Cards

What options describe the characteristics of block-based protocols? (Choose three)

A. SCSI has a very high latency when transporting data

B. SCSI can be transported using two specific methods

C. Fibre Channel cable is considered to have lossless delivery method

D. FCoE transport replaces Fibre Channel cabling with 10-Gb Ethernet cables and provides lossless delivery over unified I/O

E. SCSI is a block-based protocol for writing and reading data blocks to and from a storage device

Select the options that describe the capacities of the Cisco Nexus 7000 9-Slot Series chassis. (Choose two)

A. LEDs report the power supply, fan, fabric, supervisor, and I/O module status

B. A 9-Slot Switch chassis with up to eight I/O module slots supports up to 336x1 and 10 Gigabit Ethernet ports

C. Front-to-back airflow with dual system and fabric fan trays for cooling

D. Integrated cable management system allowing maximum flexibility

Which feature best describes the Cisco UCS C200 M2 rack server?

A. Up to 300 GB of DRAM

B. Up to six hard drives

C. Two full-length adapter slots

D. Can support up to two CPUs

Which of the following is/are required to configure communication between the VSM and vCenter? (Choose two)

A. Manual configuration on the VSM

B. No further software installation is required

C. Port 80 must be available for use

D. The use of the installer application on the VSM

What information would you expect to be returned from the "show module" command on the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series switch? (Choose four)

A. Status

B. Ports

C. Model

D. Domain ID

E. Control VLAN

F. Module type

What is the purpose of the "show tech-support" command? (Choose three)

A. Used to provide the hardware information of the switch

B. Used to provide the software details of the switch

C. Used to install an upgraded licensed file to the switch

D. Used to provide the configuration details of the switch

When creating service profiles from a template, what options are initially available in the wizard? (Choose two)

A. Target pool

B. Server list

C. Naming suffix

D. Number

E. Naming prefix

What should you consider when using ESX and ESXi for data center virtualization deployments? (Choose two)

A. VMware vCenter can manage an ESX or ESXi environment as a group

B. Network teaming is not supported

C. A standalone host cannot use a virtual switch

D. They can use multiple network connectivity options

Which two are requirements for FCoE? (Choose two)

A. The entire Ethernet frame must be carried in the payload of a single Fibre Channel frame

B. FIP must be used for Fibre Channel device login

C. A minimum 1 Gb/s Ethernet platform

D. Lossless delivery of Fibre Channel frames

Which is a feature that best describes the Cisco UCS B200 M3?

A. Components are not hot-swappable

B. Has the ability to support four CPUs

C. It is a first generation server

D. Has memory banks for each CPU

Which technology enables you to create multiple logical switches on the same Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?

A. VDCs

B. VN-Link

C. VNTag

D. vPC peer links

Which two statements describe the 2148T Fabric Extender? (Choose two)

A. Provides 48 host ports operating at 1 Gb/s

B. Supports FCoE/DCB

C. Supports one fabric port channel containing up to four ports, using L2/L3/L4 hash for load balancing

D. Does not support host port channels

Which two statements describe the configuration of a zone set? (Choose two)

A. When you initially create a new zone set, it becomes a part of the full zone set.

B. You need to copy the configuration to the startup configuration after initially activating a new zone.

C. The active zone set cannot be modified.

D. Zone set configurations are local to each switch.

How many Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders can be connected to a Cisco Nexus 5500 Platform switch with no Layer 3 daughter card or expansion module?

A. 8

B. 12

C. 24

D. 32

Which Cisco UCS server rack model has up to 16 hard-drives, 1 TB of RAM, and up to 2 CPUs?

A. C460

B. C240

C. C260

D. C220

You have a small branch location that has a mix of the UNIX and Linux operating systems; these clients need the fastest access to shared files and directories stored and administered centrally from a storage system.

Which protocol should you select to provide access to remote storage devices for the clients?

A. Fibre Channel

B. NFS

C. TCP/IP

D. CIFS

Which command, issued on a Cisco Nexus 7000 series switch, is used to view only the MAC addresses that are learned for the VLANs that are extended on the overlay?

A. show mac address-table

B. show otv route

C. show otv adjacency

D. show otv overlay

Which of the following is used to establish the Fibre Channel virtual links?

A. FCoE logical End Point

B. Fibre Channel Forwarder

C. ENode

D. FCoE initialization protocol

Which options describe the capabilities of the Cisco MDS 9000 Series switching modules? (Choose three)

A. Cisco MDS 9000 8-Gbps Advanced Fibre Channel Switching Modules provide line-rate switching across all the ports on the same module without performance degradation by using crossbar architecture

B. There are four Cisco MDS 9000 Family 8-Gbps Fibre Channel Switching Modules available for use

C. Cisco FlexSpeed technology enables ports on the Cisco MDS 9000 Family 8-Gbps Advanced Fibre Channel Switching Modules to be configured as Fibre Channel interfaces

D. Cisco MDS 9000 Family 8-Gpbs Advanced Fibre Channel Switching Modules are available in three configurations

E. Cisco MDS 9000 Family 8-Gbps Advanced Fibre Channel Switching Modules are equipped with integrated Call Home capability

Which Fibre Channel port type is attached to a switch and is used to connect to a disk?

A. F Port

B. ST Port

C. E Port

D. TNP Port

E. FL Port

Which two statements describe an overlay interface and how it is used? (Choose two)

A. It is a logical multiaccess and multicast-capable interface.

B. The entire OTV overlay configuration is applied to the physical interface.

C. Layer 2 frames are logically forwarded to the overlay interface.

D. It operates at Layer 3 of the OSI model.

How does FabricPath handle equal cost path links? (Choose three)

A. Reliable Layer 2 and Layer 3 connectivity is provided using STP inside the FabricPath

B. FabricPath supports up to 16 ECMP links that can be active between any two devices

C. Upon a failure, traffic is redistributed across remaining links providing fast convergence

D. Using ECMP at the data plane, the network can use all the links that are available between any two devices

Which license is required to support VDCs on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches?

A. Scalable Services license

B. Base license

C. Advanced LAN Enterprise license

D. Enterprise license

What options describe Fibre Channel WWN addressing? (Choose three)

A. nWWNs uniquely identify each port in a device

B. pWWNs uniquely identify each port in a device

C. WWN address are dynamically acquired addresses that are routable in a switch fabric

D. Every Fibre Channel port and node has a hard-coded WWN address

E. WWN address are guaranteed to be globally unique

Which of the following describe VDC interface allocation? (Choose four)

A. After a physical port is assigned to a VDC, all subsequent configuration of that port is performed within that VDC

B. On most I/O modules, any logical port can be individually assigned to any VDC

C. Within a VDC, both physical and logical interfaces can be assigned to VLANs

D. Physical ports are allocated to different VDCs from VDC 2

E. Logical interfaces, such as SVIs and/or tunnel interfaces, cannot be assigned to a VDC

F. Logical interfaces are always created in the VDC to which they belong

What must be created and bound to the Ethernet interface for each of the FCF-connected Ethernet interfaces when configuring multihop FCoE?

A. VN Port

B. vFC interface

C. Fabric interface

D. VE Port

Which options describe the benefits to using Cisco MDS 9000 Series Multilayer Switches in the data center? (Choose four)

A. EIGRP support

B. Multiprotocol support

C. Includes both fabric and director class switches

D. Comprehensive security features

E. Ease of management

You want to implement a Cisco Nexus 7000 M2-Series I/O module that will provide scalability and high-performance as well as offering the flexibility and features required. You are exploring your options as you have specific port requirements that support 40 Gb/s each.

How many ports are on the Cisco Nexus 7000 40 Gigabit Ethernet module?

A. 2

B. 6

C. 4

D. 8

What is used to tell a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch which policies to apply to packets being sent to and from a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extender?

A. VN-Link

B. VSS

C. VNTag

D. VDC

What should you consider when using Hyper-V instead of VMware? (Choose two)

A. Multiple hosts cannot access the same LUN on SAN storage

B. A virtualized partition has access to the physical processor

C. It uses cluster-shared volumes storage to support live migration of Hyper-V VMs from one Hyper-V server to another

D. It isolates VM operating systems from one another through partitioning or logical isolation

Which IEEE standard enables devices to communicate parameters with each other?

A. Enhanced Transmission Selection

B. Data Center Bridging Exchange

C. Priority Flow Control

D. Link-Level Flow Control

What options describe the capacities of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series chassis? (Choose three)

A. It is capable of supervisor module redundancy operation with synchronization providing SSO in the event of a supervisor module failure

B. It has architecture that makes it possible to perform complete image upgrades non-disruptively with no impact to the data-forwarding plane

C. It has front-to-back airflow architecture to address the requirements for hot-aisle and cold-aisle deployments

D. It can be configured with one or more fabric modules up to a maximum of eight modules that provide capacity and redundancy

E. It uses switched Ethernet out-of-band channel (EOBC) for management and control of traffic between the supervisors and I/O modules

Which statement correctly describes the 6248UP Series fabric interconnect cluster connectivity?

A. L1 and L2 located in front of the chassis

B. L1s must be connected to L2s

C. Requires category 3 Ethernet cables

D. L2s must connect to L2s

Cisco test CCNA 640-916

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While calculating your results take a moment to complete our simple survey!

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Why?

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