CCNA DC Technologies Practice Test

Fibre Channel ports are intelligent interface points on the Fibre Channel SAN.

Select the devices Fibre Channel ports are found embedded in. (Choose three)

A. Array controller

B. USB drive

C. I/O adapter

D. Switched fabric

Which is a feature of RAID 0?

A. Provides single disk redundancy

B. Reduces disk performance

C. Provides two disk redundancy

D. Data distributed among all disks

Which command is entered on the EXSi host to verify that the parameters for the VEM match the configuration on the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series switch?

A. show module

B. show module vem map

C. vemcmd show port

D. vemcmd show card

During chassis discovery, which component sends Cisco UCS Manager information about fans, power supplies, and part IDs?

A. Chassis management controller

B. I/O multiplexer

C. Data Management Engine (DME)

D. Cisco Integrated Management Controller

Which command is entered on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM to verify whether the configuration was successfully pushed to vCenter?

A. show module

B. vem status

C. show module vem map

D. show svs domain

Which is a feature of RAID 1?

A. Disks are independent

B. Reduced read performance

C. Provides limited redundancy

D. Data replicated among disks

On the Cisco MDS 9513 Multilayer Director switch, what is the total aggregate bandwidth that is provided?

A. 4.1 Tb/s

B. 1.1 Tb/s

C. 2.2 Tb/s

D. 760 Gb/s

What options describe the Fibre Channel Name Server service features? (Choose three)

A. FCNS supports soft zoning by performing WWN lookups to verify zone membership

B. The Fibre Channel Name Server (FCNS) implements a database in the fabric for storing information about FCIDs, pWWNs, and nWWNs

C. Management applications use Registered State Change Notification (RSCN) lookups to obtain information about the fabric

D. FCNS sends Registered State Change Notification (RSCN) to the fabric when a local change occurs

What enhancements does vDS bring to VMware switching? (Choose three)

A. Port state migration

B. Rx rate limiting

C. PVLANs

D. Egress-only traffic shaping

E. Port-channel technology

What options are considered Cisco Nexus 7000 Series high availability features? (Choose three)

A. Service modularity

B. RBAC

C. Cooling subsystem

D. Dual redundant supervisors

E. Independent system management busses

Which options describe OTV Spanning Tree operations? (Choose three)

A. OTV by default transmits STP bridge protocol data units (BPDUs) across the overlay

B. An OTV edge device only sends and receives BPDUs on internal interfaces

C. BPDU filtering is not a native OTV function and requires explicit configuration

D. Separating spanning-tree domains limits the fate sharing between data center sites

E. Each OTV site maintains its own STP topology, even if the Layer 2 domain is extended across the sites

Which statements describe the use of STP in loop prevention? (Choose two)

A. STP blocks certain ports to ensure that traffic cannot loop around the network endlessly

B. The STP topology implies that wasted bandwidth leads to increased oversubscription

C. When a failure is detected, STP convergence time is based on keepalives

D. Standard STP is the recommended loop prevention mechanism when using vPCs

What are the features of the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series switch virtualization solution? (Choose two)

A. This series of switches can be introduced to an existing virtual environment

B. It provides port-based connectivity of VMs

C. When migrating a VM to another host, only security policies do not require network reconfiguration

D. A network administrator can apply a policy to the VM level

Which command would you use to determine the UDP or TCP ports on which the router is listening?

A. vemcmd show port

B. show control-plane host open-ports

C. show port-profile name

D. show vpc brief

E. show interface fex-intf

Which options influence the data center design? (Choose four)

A. Architectures that can distribute Layer 2 traffic on all available links

B. The need for a higher level of reliability, with minimized downtime for updates and configuration changes

C. The need to decrease computing power at a lower cost

D. The need to reduce overall power consumption in the data center

E. The need to optimize computing resources by increasing the rate of growth of physical computing nodes

F. Architectures capable of supporting a SAN and a LAN on the same network for server consolidation

What options best describe the Cisco MDS 9500 Series supervisor module capabilities? (Choose three)

A. The Supervisor-2 module can be used in any Cisco MDS 9500 Series Multilayer Directors switch

B. When a Supervisor-1 module is installed in the Cisco MDS 9513 Multilayer Director switch 528 ports are supported

C. Supports Cisco MDS 9513 Multilayer Director Implementation with the use of the Supervisor-1 module

D. The Supervisor-2 module offers additional flash memory, RAM and NVRAM memory, and redundant BIOS

E. Supervisor-2A Module supports deployment of FCoE in the chassis of the Cisco MDS 9500 Series Multilayer Directors

You need a high-speed storage protocol capable of supporting multiple protocols, shared and switched transport options, and can address millions of devices.

What protocol will you select to meet your requirements?

A. NFS

B. CIFS

C. SCSI

D. Fibre Channel

Which statement describes FEX operation?

A. The FEX provides switching functionality.

B. The FEX is responsible for enforcing security configurations.

C. The FEX is a line card.

D. The FEX is responsible for QoS.

Identify the statements that best describe how FabricPath uses the IS-IS protocol for control plane operations. (Choose two)

A. Layer 2 IS-IS is used as the control protocol for the Cisco FabricPath

B. Using custom TTL settings IS-IS devices can exchange information about virtually anything

C. There is no need to run STP with Cisco FabricPath and Layer 2 IS-IS

D. There is a requirement for IP reachability in order to form adjacency between devices

To which two types of networks can the Cisco UCS 6120XP fabric interconnect provide unified access? (Choose two)

A. LAN

B. SAN

C. WAN

D. MAN

Which command would you use to display the isolated VSAN assignment on a switch?

A. show vsan membership

B. show fcns

C. show vsan

D. show flogi database

Which command would you use to ping host 172.16.1.42 from the management interface of the Cisco Nexus 7010?

A. ping 172.16.1.42

B. ping vrf mgmt 172.16.1.42

C. ping 172.16.1.42 vrf default

D. ping 172.16.1.42 vrf management

Which is a feature of parity?

A. Uses more storage than mirroring

B. Needs twice the amount of hard-drives

C. Generally costs more than mirroring

D. Uses one disk as a parity

Which three statements concerning zoning are true? (Choose three)

A. RSCN message flooding restricts the size of a zone.

B. Zoning configuration changes are disruptive.

C. Fabric availability is limited.

D. There are a limited number of devices supported per zone.

E. Zoning does not support overlapping zones.

What are port profiles used for? (Choose two)

A. To manually configure an interface

B. To correspond to port groups in VMware

C. To configure interfaces in the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series switch with a common set of configuration commands

D. To assign network settings to VMs and uplink ports

How many physical servers can be connected to a single 5K using the Cisco Nexus 2232 10-GB E Fabric Extender and not including a Layer 3 card?

A. 768

B. 32

C. 8

D. 256

Select the options that describe the capabilities of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series I/O modules. (Choose two)

A. The F-Series I/O modules are the most flexible and performance driven modules for the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series

B. The F1-Series 32-Port 1 and 10 Gigabit Ethernet Module has 720 mpps Layer 2 and Layer 3 forwarding capacity for both IPv4 and IPv6

C. The F1-Series modules have support for Layer 3 functions without the addition of extra M modules

D. The F2-Series 48-Port 1 and 10 Gigabit Ethernet Module can support up to 550 GB/s of speed on the switch fabric interface

Your companies data center expansion requires a switch that has side-to-side airflow and can contain up to 16 I/O module slots supporting 768x1 and 10 Gigabit Ethernet ports.

Which product will meet these requirements?

A. Cisco Nexus 1010 Virtual Services Appliance

B. Cisco Nexus 9-Slot Switch

C. Cisco Nexus 18-Slot Switch

D. Cisco Nexus 10-Slot Switch

When creating service profiles from a template, what options are initially available in the wizard? (Choose two)

A. Target pool

B. Server list

C. Naming suffix

D. Number

E. Naming prefix

Identify the current and future Cisco MDS 9000 Series switch licensing model upgrade options that are possible. (Choose two)

A. Module-based Licensing

B. Feature-based Licensing

C. Kickstart-based Licensing

D. Port-based Licensing

Which is a feature of the Cisco UCS 5108 Blade Server Chassis?

A. Has eight power cable slots

B. Supports eight half-width Blade Servers

C. Has ten redundant fan modules

D. Supports three Fabric Extenders

Which options best describe how Cisco Nexus B22 Series Blade Fabric Extenders simplify data center server access and operations? (Choose three)

A. There is one single point of management and policy enforcement on the B22 making the commissioning and decommissioning of blades through zero-touch installation and automatic configuration of FEXs easy to do

B. The B22 behave like remote line cards for a parent Cisco Nexus switch and together form a centralized modular system

C. The Cisco Nexus B22 Series Blade Fabric Extenders provide one type of port known as uplink ports

D. The B22 is capable of consolidation, cabling reduction, and investment protection through feature inheritance from the parent switch

E. The B22 have a distributed modular system that creates a scalable server access environment with no reliance on STP that provide consistency between blade and rack servers

Which is utilized by the active/active FEX deployment model?

A. Static Pinning

B. Virtual port channels

C. Straight-through connectivity

D. Dynamic Pinning

You are looking at the Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extenders to provide an external I/O module for your Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches.

What forms of modules are available for the Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extenders? (Choose two)

A. Expansion module

B. Licensing module

C. 1 Gb/s module

D. 10 Gb/s module

Which command would you use on a Cisco Nexus 7010 switch to ping host 172.16.1.42 in the context of the VPN connection named "management"?

A. ping 172.16.1.42 vrf default

B. ping vrf management 172.16.1.42

C. ping 172.16.1.42 vrf management

D. ping 172.16.1.42

What is a function of the finite state machine?

A. Establishes I/O connections

B. Carries management traffic

C. Controls the power supply

D. Validates complex series of events

What is a virtual interface that migrates along with a VM and virtual network link called?

A. Floating vEth interface

B. Static vNIC

C. Fixed vEth interface

D. Dynamic vNIC

Which characteristic describes the LAN data center aggregation layer?

A. Service devices that are deployed at the aggregation layer are shared among all the servers.

B. New designs try to confine Layer 2 access to the aggregation layer.

C. The aggregation layer aggregates the uplinks from the data center core to the access layer.

D. The aggregation layer in the data center is typically built at Layer 2 to allow for better sharing of service devices across multiple servers.

Which of the following is used to establish the Fibre Channel virtual links?

A. FCoE logical End Point

B. Fibre Channel Forwarder

C. ENode

D. FCoE initialization protocol

Which interface defines the Cisco UCSM instance when Cisco UCSM is set up for the first time?

A. Virtual template interface

B. Virtual tunnel interface

C. mgmt0 interface

D. Virtual IP interface

Which describes a feature of the Ethernet port roles?

A. Port modes cannot be changed

B. Physical ports cannot be changed

C. Port roles can be unconfigured

D. Ports can have multiple roles

What are the advantages of using a core and edge design? (Choose three)

A. It offers all necessary features of a SAN when it comes to resiliency and performance

B. The port density of this topology can scale as high as the core-aggregation topology

C. There are many switch model choices that can be used when using two layers, not three layers

D. A redundant core-edge design uses only one complete accessible fabric

E. Eliminates one point of potential ISL congestion when accessing storage resources

How does the OTV control protocol handle unknown unicasts and ARP caching? (Choose three)

A. Flooding is required for MAC address learning

B. OTV edge devices forward Layer 2 traffic only if it has previously received information on how to reach that remote MAC destination

C. Each OTV edge device maintains an ARP cache to reduce ARP traffic on the overlay

D. By default, OTV suppresses the flooding of unknown unicast frames across the overlay

Which vPC component is referred to as a device that is connected to a vPC peer using a non-vPC link?

A. vPC peer

B. Orphan device

C. Orphan port

D. vPC domain

Which of the following IEEE standards send pause notifications to the sender of frames?

A. Priority Flow Control

B. Link-Level Flow Control

C. Enhanced Transmission Selection

D. Data Center Bridging Exchange

Which options describe the Layer 3 daughter card for the Cisco Nexus 5548 switch? (Choose two)

A. There is no requirement to power down the switch before installing the Layer 3 daughter card

B. The Layer 3 daughter card is also known and considered as a GEM

C. The N55-D160L3 is the Layer 3 daughter card that can be installed in any Cisco Nexus 5500 Series switch

D. Layer 3 support is enabled via a field-upgradable routing card that can be installed while the switch remains rack mounted

Which two are instances when the setup utility can be run on a Cisco Nexus 7000 or 5000 Series switch? (Choose two)

A. Any time before the POST has been started

B. Any time after the initial setup has been completed

C. When no operating system exists

D. When no configuration exists

What must be created and bound to the Ethernet interface for each of the FCF-connected Ethernet interfaces when configuring multihop FCoE?

A. VN Port

B. vFC interface

C. Fabric interface

D. VE Port

Which best describes a feature of the FET?

A. Supports up to 100 meter connectivity

B. Supports over 110 meter connectivity

C. Supports less than 50 meter connectivity

D. Supports over 100 meter connectivity

Which best describes upstream connections to the Layer 3 LAN domain and the Fibre Channel SAN edge switch?

A. Fibre Channel dedicated ports go to SAN

B. Fibre Channel dedicated ports go to LAN

C. Fibre Channel dedicated ports go to 5k

D. 5K dedicated ports go to SAN

Cisco test CCNA 640-916

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While calculating your results take a moment to complete our simple survey!

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Why?

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