CCNA DC Technologies Practice Test

Which command would you use on a Cisco Nexus 7010 switch to ping host 172.16.1.42 in the context of the VPN connection named "management"?

A. ping 172.16.1.42 vrf default

B. ping vrf management 172.16.1.42

C. ping 172.16.1.42 vrf management

D. ping 172.16.1.42

Which feature best describes the ETC function?

A. Sends pause messages

B. Prioritizes bandwidth

C. Implements congestion avoidance

D. Establishes buffer credit

What benefits does network-based virtualization provide to overcome the challenges of traditional SAN management solutions? (Choose two)

A. Data is better protected by simplified snapshot and replication techniques

B. The virtualization manager remaps the CDB and LUN and returns it to the server

C. The server sends the modified control frame to the storage target port

D. Servers are no longer responsible for volume management and data migration

Which options describe advantages of combining the core and edge layers? (Choose three)

A. Deterministic latency

B. Fabric Shortest Path First doubles the available ISL bandwidth

C. Cost effective due to the use of more ISL ports

D. Simplifies performance analysis and tuning with asymmetric design

E. High port and performance scalability

What are the characteristics of the vNetwork standard switch operation in a virtual network? (Choose two)

A. It supports inbound and outbound load balancing

B. It participates in STP, DTP, or PAgP

C. It provides connectivity for VM communication within and between ESX hosts

D. It operates as a physical layer 2 switch

What are port profiles used for? (Choose two)

A. To manually configure an interface

B. To correspond to port groups in VMware

C. To configure interfaces in the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series switch with a common set of configuration commands

D. To assign network settings to VMs and uplink ports

Select the options that describe the capacities of the Cisco Nexus 7000 9-Slot Series chassis. (Choose two)

A. LEDs report the power supply, fan, fabric, supervisor, and I/O module status

B. A 9-Slot Switch chassis with up to eight I/O module slots supports up to 336x1 and 10 Gigabit Ethernet ports

C. Front-to-back airflow with dual system and fabric fan trays for cooling

D. Integrated cable management system allowing maximum flexibility

How can vPC peer switches using STP present themselves as a single logical switch to devices? (Choose two)

A. If the peer-switch option is not used, the primary switch generates and processes BPDUs and uses its own bridge ID for the BPDUs. The secondary switch only relays BPDUs.

B. A system ID is generated from a reserved pool of MAC addresses and combined with the vPC domain ID.

C. If the peer-switch option is used, both switches generate and process BPDUs. Both switches use the same bridge ID.

D. If the peer-switch option is not used, the primary switch generates and processes BPDUs and uses its own bridge ID for the BPDUs. The secondary switch generates BPDUs, but does not relay them.

Identify the options that describe OTV control plane operations. (Choose three)

A. MAC addresses are advertised in the background once the OTV has been configured

B. There is no dependency with the Layer 3 routing protocol used in the transport infrastructure

C. OTV depends on flooding to propagate MAC address reachability information

D. OTV uses IS-IS as the control protocol between the edge devices

E. The OTV control plane overlay interface requires explicit configuration

What statements best describe the Cisco Nexus 5000 control plane system architecture? (Choose two)

A. In the control plane, the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch runs the Cisco NX-OS Software on a single-core 1.66-GHz Intel LV Xeon CPU with 2 GB of DRAM

B. The NX-OS Software provides isolation between control and data forwarding planes to prevent disruption within one plane from disrupting the other

C. The supervisor complex is connected to the data plane in-band through two external ports running 1-Gb/s Ethernet

D. The control plane is responsible for managing all the data traffic

What options describe Fibre Channel WWN addressing? (Choose three)

A. nWWNs uniquely identify each port in a device

B. pWWNs uniquely identify each port in a device

C. WWN address are dynamically acquired addresses that are routable in a switch fabric

D. Every Fibre Channel port and node has a hard-coded WWN address

E. WWN address are guaranteed to be globally unique

How many physical servers can be connected to a 5k dedicated port, including a Layer 3 card?

A. 32

B. 8

C. 768

D. 256

Which is a feature of RAID 0+1?

A. Improves read performance

B. Features low input/ output rates

C. Cheaper alternative to RAID 0

D. Provides a low fault tolerance

What statements describe the Cisco NX-OS default Control Plane Policing (CoPP) on Nexus 7000 and 5000 Series switches? (Choose three)

A. CoPP is configured only in the default VDC and applies to onlt the master VDC on the Cisco NX-OS device

B. The Cisco NX-OS device provides CoPP to prevent denial of service (DoS) attacks from impacting performance

C. The level of CoPP policy protection can be set to strict, moderate, lenient, or none from the initial setup

D. The Cisco NX-OS device hardware performs CoPP on a per-forwarding engine basis

E. CoPP has support for distributed policing

In server virtualization, which tasks is the hypervisor responsible for? (Choose two)

A. Allowing interaction between ESX servers and VMs

B. Controlling and managing hardware resources

C. Logically representing a PC or a server

D. Managing VMs

Which license is required to support VDCs on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches?

A. Scalable Services license

B. Base license

C. Advanced LAN Enterprise license

D. Enterprise license

Which of the following are the examples of management protocols available for UCS Manager? (Choose two)

A. NIPS

B. TCP

C. IPMI

D. CIM XML

E. NTP

Which two Cisco Nexus 2000 Series FEXs provide support for up to 24 host port channels? (Choose two)

A. 2148T

B. 2232PP

C. 2248TP-E

D. 2224TP

What statements describe how Ethernet flow control can degrade performance? (Choose three)

A. The transmitter does not stop transmitting packets until the receiver buffers overflow

B. When Tx port buffers are completely filled and cannot accept any more packets, the Tx port tells the Rx port to stop or slow the flow of data

C. Heavy traffic loads on the media

D. Any packets that get lost must be retransmitted

E. The Tx port counts the number of free buffers at the Rx port

Which product has a fixed module and one slot for an I/O module?

A. Cisco MDS 9148 Multilayer Fabric Switch

B. Cisco MDS 9222i Multiservice Modular Switch

C. Cisco MDS 9506 Multilayer Director Switch

D. Cisco MDS 9124 Multilayer Fabric Switch

How is the 5K connected to the 2K for distances over 10 meters?

A. Passive Twinax

B. Wireless

C. Active Twinax

D. Optic Cable

What are the advantages of using a core and edge design? (Choose three)

A. It offers all necessary features of a SAN when it comes to resiliency and performance

B. The port density of this topology can scale as high as the core-aggregation topology

C. There are many switch model choices that can be used when using two layers, not three layers

D. A redundant core-edge design uses only one complete accessible fabric

E. Eliminates one point of potential ISL congestion when accessing storage resources

What is responsible for performing the encapsulation and decapsulation that is necessary to transport Fibre Channel frames over Ethernet?

A. ENode

B. FIP

C. FCoE_LEP

D. FCF

What options best describe Cisco Nexus 5000 GEM expansion modules support? (Choose two)

A. The dual expansion modules supported on the 5020 switch are all hot-swappable

B. The Cisco Nexus 5020 switch supports a single module

C. They can be used to add additional fibre channel ports to the Cisco Nexus 5010 and 5020 switches

D. Expansion modules are intelligent and use forwarding logic

What is the primary role of the data center core layer?

A. Policy-based connectivity

B. Connectivity for servers

C. Control and application services

D. High-speed switching

Which two are requirements for FCoE? (Choose two)

A. The entire Ethernet frame must be carried in the payload of a single Fibre Channel frame

B. FIP must be used for Fibre Channel device login

C. A minimum 1 Gb/s Ethernet platform

D. Lossless delivery of Fibre Channel frames

Select the statements that describe the role of the vPC peer link in vPC data plane operations. (Choose two)

A. It is used to carry regular data traffic for vPCs

B. Frames that enter a vPC peer switch from the peer link, exit the switch on a vPC member port

C. Regular switch MAC address learning is replaced with Cisco Fabric Services-based MAC address learning for vPCs

D. It is used to carry vPC control and flooded traffic

What should you consider when implementing host-based virtualization? (Choose two)

A. This solution is vendor-proprietary and difficult to manage in a heterogeneous SAN

B. It is licensed on a per-host basis and can be expensive

C. The virtualization software is complex and must trap and redirect every frame before it reaches the storage target

D. It can have scalability issues and can be a single point of failure if the devices are not clustered

What is a function of the finite state machine?

A. Establishes I/O connections

B. Carries management traffic

C. Controls the power supply

D. Validates complex series of events

Which two statements describe storage communications between initiators and targets? (Choose two)

A. LUN mapping controls paths between initiators and targets.

B. The client application resides on the target.

C. The initiator is typically a storage device.

D. LUN masking makes specific LUNs available to server ports.

Which options describe M1 module support features? (Choose two)

A. M1-Series 8-Port 10 Gigabit Ethernet Module provides the same features as the N7K-M132XP-12 including oversubscription at the front panel

B. The M1 module supports layer 2 and layer 3 functions

C. All 7000 M Series of forwarding engines contain the M1 forwarding engine

D. The M1 Series modules support up to 550 Gb/s of speed on the switch fabric interface

Identify the options that describe the capabilities of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series platform. (Choose three)

A. The Cisco Nexus 7000 Series is a modular product designed for highly scalable 10 Gigabit Ethernet networks

B. The Cisco Nexus 7000 Series runs the Cisco NX-OS Software to deliver a rich set of features with nonstop operation

C. The Cisco Nexus 7000 Series contains redundant power supplies, fan trays, and fabric modules that are accessible completely from the front ensuring cabling is not disrupted during maintenance

D. The Cisco Nexus 7000 Series uses a fabric architecture that scales beyond 15 Tb/s

E. The Cisco Nexus 7000 Series is designed for reliability and maximum availability, all interface and supervisor modules are accessible from the back to avoid disruptions

In UCS Manager, which tab would you look for to find the FSM discovery detail option?

A. General

B. Fabric ports

C. Events

D. FSM

What options are considered Cisco Nexus 7000 Series high availability features? (Choose three)

A. Service modularity

B. RBAC

C. Cooling subsystem

D. Dual redundant supervisors

E. Independent system management busses

Which statement describes FEX operation?

A. The FEX provides switching functionality.

B. The FEX is responsible for enforcing security configurations.

C. The FEX is a line card.

D. The FEX is responsible for QoS.

Describe the use of the pipe and parse parameters. (Choose three)

A. The pipe parameter can be placed at the end of all CLI commands to qualify, redirect, or filter the output of the command

B. Get regular expression and extended get regular expression are advanced pipe options

C. The pipe option can also be used for multiple times or recursively

D. Advanced pipe options include the less and more features

Which of these components are the contents of a service profile? (Choose three)

A. C-Series server

B. vNIC

C. B-Series blade server

D. QoS

E. MAC

Which best describes a feature of the FET?

A. Supports up to 100 meter connectivity

B. Supports over 110 meter connectivity

C. Supports less than 50 meter connectivity

D. Supports over 100 meter connectivity

You are reviewing licensing options for the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches. Which options describe the software licensing for the 5000 series? (Choose three)

A. Layer 2 support on the Cisco Nexus 5500 Platform switches requires additional field upgradable hardware and a software license

B. The Cisco Nexus 5500 Platform licensing is port based

C. The Base Services Package (N5000-AS) comes automatically and is included with the switch hardware

D. Trial licenses are also known as honor-based licensing

E. A node-locked license is a mechanism that prevents a feature from being used without first obtaining a license

F. Licensing for the Cisco Nexus 5000 Platform switches is tied to the physical chassis serial number

How does communication between the VSM and VEM occur? (Choose two)

A. The packet interface carries low-level messages to each VEM, to ensure proper configuration of the VEM

B. The packet interface carries network packets from the VEM to the VSM

C. Communication between the VSM and VEM is provided solely by the packet interface

D. The control interface maintains synchronization between the primary and secondary VSMs

Which is a feature of RAID 5?

A. Provides two disk redundancy

B. Stores parity in one disk

C. Performs 4 I/O per write update

D. Greatly improved write performance

Which options describe Cisco MDS 9500 Series power supply capabilities? (Choose three)

A. Power is reserved for the supervisor and fan assemblies only in redundant mode

B. In combined mode, the chassis uses twice the power capacity of the lower-capacity power supply modules

C. Power supply modules are configured in combined mode by default

D. Each supervisor module is allocated 220 W in reserve

E. In redundant mode, the chassis uses the power capacity of the lower-capacity power supply module

How does the flow control improve performance under high traffic loads? (Choose three)

A. A credit-based flow control strategy prevents frames from being lost when the Tx Port runs out of free buffers

B. Using flow control, the Tx Port sends frames only when it knows that the Rx Port can accept them

C. A credit-based flow control strategy ensures that the Tx Port is always in control

D. Preventing lost frames maximizes performance under high-traffic load conditions because the Tx Port does not need to resend frames

E. Using a credit-based flow control, the receiver must issue a credit for each frame that the transmitter sends before at frame can be sent

What is necessary for chassis discovery to occur after a chassis is initially connected to the fabric?

A. Cisco UCS Manager receives a re-acknowledgement of the chassis.

B. Cisco UCS Manager retrieves inventory details and stores it in its database.

C. Cisco UCS Manager discovers the FCoE VLANs and remote virtual Fibre Channel interfaces.

D. Cisco UCS Manager recognizes that a new server link is active.

What is used to restrict access between initiators and targets within a single fabric?

A. FLOGI

B. VSAN

C. LUN masking

D. Zoning

What allows servers that are connected to a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extender to continue forwarding traffic on the physical NIC that connects to the FEX after seeing a link failure?

A. Dynamic pinning

B. Static pinning

C. VN-Link

D. Cisco FabricPath

Which option determines bandwidth oversubscription with the Cisco UCS 2104XP I/O module?

A. CPU selection

B. The configuration in Cisco UCS Manager and choice of SFP transceiver

C. The number of links to the fabric interconnects

D. LUN masking

How does the iSCSI protocol provide an interoperable solution? (Choose three)

A. One area that is not addressed with iSCSI is distance limitations

B. Allows IP hosts to gain access to Fibre Channel-based storage targets

C. Products from the Cisco MDS 9000 Series family provide transparent SCSI routing

D. Leverages existing IP-based infrastructures and management facilities

E. Uses TCP port 3620 to provide congestion control and in-order delivery of error-free data

Cisco test CCNA 640-916

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