CCNA DC Technologies Practice Test

Which best describes upstream connections to the Layer 3 LAN domain and the Fibre Channel SAN edge switch?

A. Fibre Channel dedicated ports go to SAN

B. Fibre Channel dedicated ports go to LAN

C. Fibre Channel dedicated ports go to 5k

D. 5K dedicated ports go to SAN

In the Virtual Machine Properties window, which option should you set the port group to in order to ensure consistent workflow in pushing policies out to VMs?

A. dvSwitch

B. Network Label

C. Port UUID

D. Specify Port

Which mapping table is inside the front-end array controller and determines which LUNs are advertised through which storage array ports?

A. zoning

B. LUN masking

C. LUN zoning

D. LUN mapping

For how many days may licensed features be evaluated on the Cisco MDS Series switch?

A. 60

B. 120

C. 30

D. 90

What options describe the Fibre Channel Name Server service features? (Choose three)

A. FCNS supports soft zoning by performing WWN lookups to verify zone membership

B. The Fibre Channel Name Server (FCNS) implements a database in the fabric for storing information about FCIDs, pWWNs, and nWWNs

C. Management applications use Registered State Change Notification (RSCN) lookups to obtain information about the fabric

D. FCNS sends Registered State Change Notification (RSCN) to the fabric when a local change occurs

What are features of the Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders? (Choose three)

A. The Cisco Nexus 2232TM 10GE Fabric Extender supports FCoE

B. The fabric interfaces are fixed and reserved marked in orange on the chassis

C. The Cisco Nexus 2232PP 10GE Fabric Extender can be connected to the Cisco Nexus 3000 Series Switches

D. Fabric Extenders are stackable 1-RU chassis that are designed for rack mounting as a ToR solution

E. The second generation of FEXs have support for enhanced QoS, port channels, ACL classification, and SPAN sessions on host ports

F. The Cisco Nexus 2232PP 10GE Fabric Extender supports SFP and SFP+ connectivity on all ports

What options describe the characteristics of file-based protocols? (Choose two)

A. Because NFS is transported over TCP/IP, the latency is high. CIFS is transported over UDP and its latency is low.

B. NFS is primarily used on the Linux operating systems to provide access to remote storage devices

C. CIFS is primarily used on the UNIX operating systems to provide access to remote storage devices

D. File-based protocols are used for reading and writing files across a network

How does vDS bring additional functionality and simplified management to the VMware network? (Choose two)

A. It allows you to track VM port state with migrations

B. It adds the ability to use private VLANs

C. It allows as many as 32 VMNICs

D. It allows as many as 1016 useable ports

Identify the options that describe the VDC architecture. (Choose three)

A. VDCs virtualize the Layer 3 forwarding and routing tables

B. VDCs allow multiple virtual switches to be implemented on one physical switch

C. VDCs share access to hardware resources and the Linux kernel

D. Within each VDC is a set of unique and independent VLANs and VRFs

What benefits does network-based virtualization provide to overcome the challenges of traditional SAN management solutions? (Choose two)

A. Data is better protected by simplified snapshot and replication techniques

B. The virtualization manager remaps the CDB and LUN and returns it to the server

C. The server sends the modified control frame to the storage target port

D. Servers are no longer responsible for volume management and data migration

What options are considered Cisco Nexus 7000 Series high availability features? (Choose three)

A. Service modularity

B. RBAC

C. Cooling subsystem

D. Dual redundant supervisors

E. Independent system management busses

Which option describes the physical position of the adapter cards for Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Servers?

A. Static pinning

B. Orphan port

C. Mezzanine

D. Backbone

Which of these components are the contents of a service profile? (Choose three)

A. C-Series server

B. vNIC

C. B-Series blade server

D. QoS

E. MAC

Which vPC component is referred to as a device that is connected to a vPC peer using a non-vPC link?

A. vPC peer

B. Orphan device

C. Orphan port

D. vPC domain

Which Fibre Channel port type is attached to a switch and is used to connect to a disk?

A. F Port

B. ST Port

C. E Port

D. TNP Port

E. FL Port

Why would you consider using asymmetric virtualization? (Choose two)

A. I/O is split into three parts

B. It offers a single point of management

C. It does not require host agents

D. It offers low latency

Identify the limitations and restrictions when completing the Cisco NX-OS ISSU on the Nexus 7000. (Choose three)

A. Any changes in the network settings may cause a disruptive upgrade

B. It does not change any configuration settings or network connections during the upgrade

C. The software upgrade may be disruptive when a single supervisor system with kickstart or system image changes

D. A blocked configuration mode during the Cisco ISSU software upgrade does not prevent changes

How does communication between the VSM and VEM occur? (Choose two)

A. The packet interface carries low-level messages to each VEM, to ensure proper configuration of the VEM

B. The packet interface carries network packets from the VEM to the VSM

C. Communication between the VSM and VEM is provided solely by the packet interface

D. The control interface maintains synchronization between the primary and secondary VSMs

Which is a feature of RAID 5?

A. Provides two disk redundancy

B. Performs 4 I/O per write update

C. Greatly improved write performance

D. Stores parity in one disk

What options describe MDS 9513 crossbar switching fabric capabilities? (Choose two)

A. The MDS 9513 crossbar switching fabric 1 module doubles active backplane bandwidth to 96 Gb/s per slot

B. The MDS 9513 crossbar switching fabric 2 module provides up to 48 Gb/s per slot bandwidth

C. High-bandwidth non-blocking architecture by scheduling frames at over 1 billion f/s ensuring that blocking will not occur even when the ports are fully utilized

D. Uses an active/active operation to load balance across both crossbars providing a redundant crossbar fabric

What is the primary role of the data center core layer?

A. Policy-based connectivity

B. Connectivity for servers

C. Control and application services

D. High-speed switching

Which options describe the fabric extender connectivity? (Choose four)

A. Port extension allows the fabric extender to act as a data path extension of the parent switch

B. Forwarding can be performed by any switch in the domain

C. All control and management functions are performed by the parent switch

D. Forwarding from and to a FEX is based on a VNTag

E. The link(s) between the fabric extender and the upstream switch multiplex the traffic from multiple devices that connect to the FEX

F. Physical host extender interfaces are represented with physical interfaces on the parent switch

Which supervisor module meets the minimum requirements that are required to support FCoE on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switches?

A. Supervisor-2A

B. Supervisor-3

C. Supervisor-2

D. Supervisor-1

Which two features are now supported by the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series switches that were not available in standard vSwitches or vDSs? (Choose two)

A. Network vMotion

B. Port-security

C. Bi-directional traffic shaping

D. SPAN

E. PVLANs

Which component combination is required to enable adapter port channels to work?

A. 6120XP and 2204XP

B. 6296UP and 2104XP

C. 6248UP and 2208XP

D. 6140XP and 2104XP

What is the purpose of a MAC address pool?

A. Provides addresses for service profiles

B. Ensures that every NIC in your environment gets a unique MAC address

C. Filters MAC addresses to protect the network

D. Blacklists known MAC addresses of attackers

What statements describe the Cisco NX-OS default Control Plane Policing (CoPP) on Nexus 7000 and 5000 Series switches? (Choose three)

A. CoPP is configured only in the default VDC and applies to onlt the master VDC on the Cisco NX-OS device

B. The Cisco NX-OS device provides CoPP to prevent denial of service (DoS) attacks from impacting performance

C. The level of CoPP policy protection can be set to strict, moderate, lenient, or none from the initial setup

D. The Cisco NX-OS device hardware performs CoPP on a per-forwarding engine basis

E. CoPP has support for distributed policing

Which is a feature that best describes the Cisco UCS C200 M2 rack server?

A. Can support up to four CPUs

B. Up to 200 GB of DRAM

C. Up to ten hard drives

D. Two half-length adapter slots

Which language is used by Cisco UCS Manager to interface and manage components?

A. XML

B. JSON

C. RDF

D. HTML

Which command is entered on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM to verify whether the configuration was successfully pushed to vCenter?

A. show module

B. vem status

C. show module vem map

D. show svs domain

What is a function of the finite state machine?

A. Establishes I/O connections

B. Carries management traffic

C. Controls the power supply

D. Validates complex series of events

Under what tab in the UCS Manager would you find service profiles and pools?

A. Admin

B. Equipment

C. SAN

D. Servers

Which situation is not applicable to the Unified Fabric Data Center?

A. Less framework components

B. Less switches

C. Less network adapters

D. Less distribution layers

What is located in the top-left pane of the Cisco UCS Manager GUI?

A. Navigation trail

B. Fault summary

C. Equipment tab

D. Server tab

Which protocol is a block-based transport that provides lossless delivery over unified I/O?

A. SCSI

B. FCoE

C. Parallel SCSI cable

D. NFS

Which two transports are used for traditional SAN connectivity? (Choose two)

A. Fibre Channel over Ethernet

B. Fibre Channel cable

C. Internet Small Computer System Interface

D. Parallel SCSI cable

Which tasks is a hypervisor responsible for? (Choose two)

A. It provides connectivity between individual VMs

B. It stores or retrieves data directly across the SAN

C. It provides resources to individual operating systems

D. It intercepts the block I/O requests

How does the flow control improve performance under high traffic loads? (Choose three)

A. A credit-based flow control strategy prevents frames from being lost when the Tx Port runs out of free buffers

B. Using flow control, the Tx Port sends frames only when it knows that the Rx Port can accept them

C. A credit-based flow control strategy ensures that the Tx Port is always in control

D. Preventing lost frames maximizes performance under high-traffic load conditions because the Tx Port does not need to resend frames

E. Using a credit-based flow control, the receiver must issue a credit for each frame that the transmitter sends before at frame can be sent

Which command would you use on a Cisco Nexus 7010 switch to ping host 172.16.1.42 in the context of the VPN connection named "management"?

A. ping 172.16.1.42 vrf default

B. ping vrf management 172.16.1.42

C. ping 172.16.1.42 vrf management

D. ping 172.16.1.42

Which statement(s) describes the evolution of data centers? (Choose three)

A. The second era emphasized client-server and centralized computing

B. The third era brings a significantly higher return on investment and lower total cost of ownership

C. Second era services were distributed because of poor computing ability and high link cost

D. The third era has a much higher utilization of servers than in the distributed approach

E. First era users performed their work using a client-server model

Which feature best describes the ETC function?

A. Sends pause messages

B. Prioritizes bandwidth

C. Implements congestion avoidance

D. Establishes buffer credit

Which three pieces of information are maintained by the VSAN Manager about each VSAN? (Choose three)

A. State of the VSAN

B. Buffer-to-buffer credit allocation

C. The load-balancing scheme used

D. Name of the VSAN

E. The Fibre Channel timers

Cisco Nexus 5000 series switches use which technology to provide logical virtualization at the device level?

A. VDC

B. VNTag

C. VRF

D. VSS

Which technology helps to facilitate the creation of highly scalable data centers?

A. VNTag

B. VN-Link

C. Dark fibre

D. FabricPath

Which options describe M1 module support features? (Choose two)

A. M1-Series 8-Port 10 Gigabit Ethernet Module provides the same features as the N7K-M132XP-12 including oversubscription at the front panel

B. The M1 module supports layer 2 and layer 3 functions

C. All 7000 M Series of forwarding engines contain the M1 forwarding engine

D. The M1 Series modules support up to 550 Gb/s of speed on the switch fabric interface

Which interface defines the Cisco UCSM instance when Cisco UCSM is set up for the first time?

A. Virtual template interface

B. Virtual tunnel interface

C. mgmt0 interface

D. Virtual IP interface

You are reviewing licensing options for the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches. Which options describe the software licensing for the 5000 series? (Choose three)

A. Layer 2 support on the Cisco Nexus 5500 Platform switches requires additional field upgradable hardware and a software license

B. The Cisco Nexus 5500 Platform licensing is port based

C. The Base Services Package (N5000-AS) comes automatically and is included with the switch hardware

D. Trial licenses are also known as honor-based licensing

E. A node-locked license is a mechanism that prevents a feature from being used without first obtaining a license

F. Licensing for the Cisco Nexus 5000 Platform switches is tied to the physical chassis serial number

Which of these data center related components typically would not be used in the SAN infrastructure design?

A. Access

B. Aggregation

C. Core

D. Collapsed core

Which part sets the FCoE model apart from the FC model?

A. ULP Mapping

B. Generic Services

C. Ethernet Media Access Control

D. Framing & Flow Control

Identify the options that describe how the SCSI protocol transports data between servers and remote storage devices. (Choose three)

A. SCSI uses a parallel architecture in which data is sent simultaneously over one single wire

B. Connectivity between a SCSI host and a SCSI device can be supported on internal connections only

C. SCSI technology still has limitations from a networking perspective

D. Hosts communicate with several SCSI devices by using multiple full-duplex I/O channels

E. SCSI uses a bus technology that supports multiple devices that are attached to a controller and can support daisy-chaining

F. SCSI communication is between an initiator and a target

Which two statements describe Wide Area Application Service (WAAS) support in the Data Center? (Choose two)

A. Service devices that are deployed in the distribution layer benefit only the servers that are directly attached to the specific distribution switch.

B. Using a dual-homing NIC in the access layer requires a VLAN or trunk link between the two access switches.

C. Deploying WAAS in the distribution layer may impose a large STP processing load.

D. The data center access layer requires Layer 2 connectivity.

E. Security and application service devices are typically deployed as modules in the access layer.

Which best describes the Blade Server Chassis power supply connectivity?

A. No power supply redundancy

B. Supports five power supplies

C. Power supply is not matrixed

D. Supports a pool of power

Which two guidelines are related to using VE Ports with multihop FCoE? (Choose two)

A. VE Port interfaces must be bound to MAC addresses.

B. Auto mode cannot be used on the vFC interface.

C. VE Port trunking can be used over FCoE-enabled VLANs.

D. Trunk mode is disabled by default on VE Ports.

Cisco test CCNA 640-916

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