CCNA DC Networking Practice Test

Which two statements are true concerning VLANs? (Choose two)

A. A VLAN can exist on a single switch or can span multiple switches.

B. A VLAN cannot limit multicast traffic.

C. A VLAN is a logical broadcast domain.

D. VLANs increase the size of the collision domain.

E. A VLAN is physical broadcast domain.

Which part of the IP PDU header specifies the IP address of the sending node?

A. Source address

B. Protocol

C. Destination address

D. Options

What statements describe the characteristics of the base-2 system? (Choose three)

A. When working with IPv4 understanding the powers of 2 is essential

B. Any number to the power of 0 is 0

C. When performing powers of 2 calculations, the least significant bit is equal to 2^1

D. Each bit in the binary value is based on powers-of-2 calculations

E. Powers of 2 provide the basis for binary values

Which Cisco NX-OS command mode allows access to the broadest range of commands?

A. Line Configuration Mode

B. Routing Protocol Configuration Mode

C. Global Configuration Mode

D. Interface Configuration Mode

You are given an IP address of 192.168.1.12/27.

Determine the subnet ID, broadcast address, and usable address range of this subnet.

A. The usable range is 192.168.1.1 to 192.168.1.62, the subnet ID is 192.168.1.0, the broadcast address is 192.168.1.63

B. The usable range is 192.168.1.1 to 192.168.2.254, the subnet ID is 192.168.1.0, the broadcast address is 192.168.2.255

C. The usable range is 192.168.1.1 to 192.168.1.126, the subnet ID is 192.168.1.0, the broadcast address is 192.168.1.127

D. The usable range is 192.168.1.1 to 192.168.1.30, the subnet ID is 192.168.1.0, the broadcast address is 192.168.1.31

Which Ethernet connection type is hot-swappable and allows connecting to different connection media?

A. MT-RJ

B. SFPs

C. GBICs

D. RJ-45

Which of the following is an example of a standard access list?

A. access-list 2000 permit tcp any host 192.168.5.5

B. access-list 50 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255

C. access-list 101 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1

D. access-list 110 deny ip any

What is the distance vector routing also known as?

A. Metric routing

B. Distance vector routing

C. Routing by rumour

D. RIP

Which three statements are true concerning VLANs? (Choose three)

A. You can assign each switch port to multiple VLANs.

B. A Layer 2 device can be used to route packets between VLANs.

C. Ports in different VLANs do not share broadcasts.

D. Each VLAN in a switched network corresponds to an IP network.

E. A router or multilayer switch is required for inter-VLAN routing.

You are given an IP address of 172.16.3.0/23.

What is the usable range of addresses within this subnet?

A. 172.16.0.0 to 172.16.4.254

B. 172.16.3.1 to 172.16.4.254

C. 172.16.1.0 to 172.16.3.254

D. 172.16.2.1 to 172.16.3.254

How do multiple copies of the same frame arriving at the intended host cause problems with the receiving protocol? (Choose two)

A. Most protocols are not designed to recognize or cope with duplicate transmissions

B. Protocols attempt to hand the duplicate transmission to the appropriate upper-layer protocol

C. Loop avoidance mechanisms prevents one of the interfaces from transmitting frames

D. Protocols that make use of a sequence-numbering mechanism assume that all the transmissions have been succeeded

What are the characteristics of a trunk? (Choose two)

A. A trunk is a point-to-point link between a router and another trunking-capable device

B. Cisco supports 802.1Q for trunking

C. 802.1Q ports cannot be assigned to a trunk

D. You can configure an interface as a trunk port or an access port

Which commands can be used to change the state of an interface? (Choose two)

A. type

B. no shutdown

C. shutdown

D. slot

What does the acronym SVI stands for?

A. Switched Virtual Interface

B. Static Virtual Interface

C. Stock Virtual Interface

D. Standard Visual Interlace

What is the command to validate if OSPF is working on your interfaces?

A. show ip ospf interfaces

B. show ip interfaces

C. show ospf ip

D. show ospf ip interface

What is the administrative distance of a directly connected network?

A. 2 hops

B. There is no way to know

C. Zero

D. 1 hop

Which key, or key combination, will allow you to enter the BIOS configuration utility during the boot sequence of a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?

A. Esc

B. Ctrl-Shift-6

C. Ctrl-]

D. Ctrl-C

What are features of Cisco PortChannel? (Choose two)

A. It is limited to the aggregation of a number of links that run between the same two devices

B. It combines the physical links into a single logical link

C. It provides load balancing based on header hashing

D. It treats links as individual links

What are startup characteristics of a switch? (Choose two)

A. The CLI can be used to customize the configuration at any time

B. You can create a default configuration for continued operation

C. If the POST fails, you must configure the switch

D. An automatic setup program can be used to assign passwords for the admin role

Your organization is experiencing a power failure. After power is restored, Host A on VLAN1 needs to communicate with Host B on VLAN2.

How will they learn each other's MAC addresses?

A. If both hosts previously communicated, they will refer to their ARP cache to send the frame to the appropriate location

B. When the switch receives the frame from Host A, it will flood the ARP request from all of its ports except the originating port

C. When the hub receives the frame from Host A, it will flood the ARP request from all of its ports except the originating port

D. The switch will have the MAC addresses cached and will forward the frames to the appropriate port

Which protocol is used to map IP addresses to MAC addresses on a network?

A. ARP

B. TCP

C. DHCP

D. NAT

E. UDP

Which three Cisco devices are DCB and FCoE-capable? (Choose three)

A. Cisco Nexus 2248 Fabric Extender

B. Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch

C. Cisco 4321 Integrated Services Router

D. Cisco Nexus 5510 Switch

E. Cisco Nexus 7018 Switch

F. Cisco Nexus B22 Series Blade Fabric Extender

Which statements accurately describe how the decimal and binary number systems function, or identify the powers of 2 concept? (Choose three)

A. The decimal system uses only the digits 0 and 1

B. Each bit in the binary value is based on power-of-2 calculations

C. The binary system is the foundation of computer operations

D. The decimal system is used in everyday mathematics

E. The binary system uses the digits 0 through 9

F. When calculating powers of 2, the least significant bit is 2^1

The subnet 172.16.0.0/21 equals a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0.

Determine the block size of this subnet.

A. 32

B. 8

C. 128

D. 4

E. 16

F. 64

How many blocks of IP addresses are designated for Class B private networks in RFC 1918?

A. 1

B. 256

C. 16

D. 128

What is the proper boot sequence of a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?

A. Loader, kickstart image, BIOS, system image

B. BIOS, loader, kickstart image, system image

C. BIOS, kickstart image, loader, system image

D. Loader, BIOS, system image, kickstart image

What criteria does EIGRP use by default to calculate its metric? (Choose two)

A. Delay

B. Reliability

C. Load

D. Bandwidth

What does the ARP table map to?

A. IP addresses to MAC addresses

B. IP addresses to supernet addresses

C. IPv4 to IPv6 addresses

D. Subnet addresses to IP addresses

What subnet mask should be chosen to create 40 subnets with a Class B network?

A. 255.255.248.0

B. 255.255.224.0

C. 255.255.240.0

D. 255.255.252.0

E. 255.255.255.128

What happens if an IP address exists on a loopback interface?

A. The lowest IP address is chosen

B. The highest IP address is chosen

C. The IP is disregarded

D. A conflict occurs

What are the characteristics of a DSL Internet connection? (Choose three)

A. Ethernet output is sent to a router

B. It uses the cable television infrastructure

C. It uses classic digital local loops

D. It uses existing telephone lines

E. Incoming lines are terminated into a modem

Which two addresses can be used for multicast? (Choose two)

A. FF05::1:3

B. 240.10.0.1

C. FE80::/10

D. 224.0.0.10

How does IPv6 travel over an IPv4 network?

A. IPv6 can't traverse an IPv4 network

B. IPv6 protocol bridge

C. IPv4 tunnel

D. IPv4 encrypted courier

What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 1,291?

A. 10100001011

B. 11010101001

C. 10110011011

D. 10110111001

Which key, or key combination, will allow you to access the boot loader prompt during the boot sequence of a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?

A. Ctrl-C

B. Ctrl-Shift-6

C. Ctrl-]

D. Esc

Which three options represent the default subnet mask associated with a Class A address? (Choose three)

A. 255.0.0.0

B. 255.255.255.0

C. 11111111.00000000.00000000.00000000

D. /24

E. /8

F. 00000000.11111111.11111111.11111111

G. /16

During data flow, which Layer 4 protocol maintains reliable delivery of the data?

A. UDLD

B. RIP

C. LACP

D. TCP

E. PAgP

What command would you use to view the status of the network interfaces?

A. show interfaces

B. ip interface brief

C. startup-config

D. show controller serial10/1

Which physical topology requires the use of a terminator?

A. Bus

B. Wireless

C. Extended star

D. Star

E. Ring

Which three commands are used to configure RIP on a Nexus switch? (Choose three)

A. router rip

B. show ip route

C. ip router rip

D. show ip rip

E. feature rip

What is the maximum distance supported by a Cisco FET-10G Fabric Extender Transceiver on laser-optimized OM2 multimode fiber?

A. 5 m

B. 25 m

C. 10 m

D. 100 m

What is the purposing of windowing? (Choose two)

A. It establishes a connection using a three-way handshake

B. It allows the sending computer to send out a number of packets without receiving acknowledgment of those packets

C. It involves distinguishing sessions from other sessions using port numbers

D. It helps maintain the speed and reliability of the connection

What is the general rule for applying ACLs on a Nexus switch?

A. One ACL per direction, one ACL per protocol, and one ACL per interface is allowed.

B. Two ACLs per direction, one ACL per protocol, and two ACLs per interface is allowed.

C. One ACL per direction, one ACL per protocol, and two ACLs per interface is allowed.

D. Two ACLs per direction, two ACLs per protocol, and two ACLs per interface is allowed.

What are characteristics of VTP operations? (Choose two)

A. The revision number is always 1 in transparent mode

B. VTP advertisements are sent every 10 minutes or whenever there is a change in the VLAN configurations

C. Each time a VTP server modifies its VLAN information, the VTP server increments the configuration revision number by one

D. A device that receives VTP advertisements must check various parameters before incorporating the received VLAN information

Identify the characteristics of Layer 3 addressing. (Choose two)

A. The OSI model uses a NSAP and a TCP/IP uses an IP address

B. MAC addresses are assigned to end devices such as hosts

C. In most cases, devices such as bridges and switches are not assigned a MAC address

D. Each NOS has its own Layer 3 address format

Which three options are Layer 2 features of Cisco NX-OS? (Choose three)

A. GLBP

B. FCoE

C. MST

D. LACP

E. RIP

F. PIM

Which Cisco data center switch provides a 1-RU switch footprint, is Layer 3 capable, supports DCB and FCoE, and delivers 960 Gb/s throughput?

A. Cisco Nexus 6004 Switch

B. Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch

C. Cisco Nexus 7009 Switch

D. Cisco Nexus 5020 Switch

Which two features are available to a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch that has the Advanced LAN Enterprise License? (Choose two)

A. Cisco TrustSec

B. IVR

C. GRE tunnels

D. Cisco FabricPath

E. VDCs

When configuring VLANs for a Cisco Nexus switch, which VLANs are reserved for system use?

A. 2 to 3967

B. 4095 and higher

C. 1

D. 3968 to 4094

Which two statements are true with respect to ACL guidelines? (Choose two)

A. The most specific statements go at the top of the ACL.

B. ACLs are created globally first before being applied to an interface.

C. Two ACLs per direction, two ACLs per interface, and two ACLs per protocol are permitted.

D. An ACL only filters traffic from going through a Nexus switch.

E. The last ACL test is always implicit "allow everything else" statement.

In a redundant topology scenario, where you have 10 VLANs, what benefits would MSTP have over Rapid PVST+? (Choose two)

A. MSTP reduces the load on the CPU

B. MSTP would only require five spanning tree instances where as Rapid PVST+ would require ten

C. MSTP is easier to configure and provides a greater level of redundancy than Rapid PVST+

D. MSTP would only require two spanning tree instances where as Rapid PVST+ would require ten

What are some of the tasks that the ACL's can do? (Choose three)

A. Filter traffic

B. Increase reliability

C. Block DHCP for Wireless clients

D. QoS

E. Increase bandwidth

F. Policy based routing

How does the block size technique allow for more addresses? (Choose three)

A. Allows the breaking up an address space into multiple subnets

B. Allows smaller networks to be created and then subdivided into larger ones

C. Allows the hierarchical dividing of the Internet into many levels

D. Provides more efficient use of subnet and hosts

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