CCNA DC Networking Practice Test

What is the maximum number of hops, the RIPv1 can handle?

A. Unlimited

B. 10

C. 20

D. 15

What happens if the restart of a graceful operations-capable protocol is required? (Choose two)

A. The restarting service can remove itself from the network control plane nondisruptively

B. The particular routing protocol utilizes the relevant mechanism to signal to its neighbors that a planned restart is being executed

C. Neighboring devices cannot continue to forward traffic to the restarting entity

D. The unit that is restarting its routing protocol continues to forward traffic using the last-established RIBs and FIBs depending on control plane operations

Which command is entered next after enabling SVI for VLAN 20 using the IP address and mask 10.1.1.1/24 on a Cisco Nexus switch when configuring an SVI?

A. no shutdown

B. ip address 10.1.1.1/24

C. interface vlan 20

D. interface-vlan feature

E. feature interface-vlan

F. vlan interface 20

What command would you use to view the status of the network interfaces?

A. show interfaces

B. ip interface brief

C. startup-config

D. show controller serial10/1

How is the root bridge involved in the STP topology? (Choose two)

A. It maintains the stability of the forwarding paths between all the switches for single VTP instance

B. It is selected on the basis of the highest MAC address

C. It is elected as the master bridge on the LAN and all path calculation through the network is based on it

D. It is the reference point that all switches use to establish the forwarding paths that avoid loops in the Layer 2 network

You need to create 8 subnets in the 192.168.1.0/24 network. What is the new network mask that will be used, and how many hosts can be used on each of the subnets? (Choose two)

A. 126 hosts

B. Network mask /25

C. 30 hosts

D. Network mask /27

E. 62 hosts

F. Network mask /26

What are the characteristics of the 802.1Q frame? (Choose two)

A. It assigns an identifier value that is based on the native VID of the port

B. It carries the traffic of multiple VLANs over a single physical link and allows you to extend the VLANs across the entire network

C. It uses an internal tagging mechanism that inserts a 4-byte tag field into the original Ethernet frame between the Source Address and the Type or Length fields

D. It alters the frame, so the trunking device recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame

Your business requires that you have fast convergence time and ample resources are in place for your solution.

What Cisco-standard Spanning Tree Protocol should you use?

A. PVST+

B. RSTP

C. MSTP

D. Rapid PVST+

How do multiple copies of the same frame arriving at the intended host cause problems with the receiving protocol? (Choose two)

A. Most protocols are not designed to recognize or cope with duplicate transmissions

B. Protocols attempt to hand the duplicate transmission to the appropriate upper-layer protocol

C. Loop avoidance mechanisms prevents one of the interfaces from transmitting frames

D. Protocols that make use of a sequence-numbering mechanism assume that all the transmissions have been succeeded

What are features of the Cisco NX-OS CLI? (Choose two)

A. Initial default interface settings are configurable

B. Out of the box, it contains sufficient information to forward traffic

C. A Cisco Nexus switch prompts for initial configuration, if there is no configuration in memory

D. The device is preconfigured with protocol addressing and parameter settings

Which two roles are available with Cisco NX-OS Software by default? (Choose two)

A. network-operator

B. operator

C. admin

D. user

E. network-admin

Which Ethernet connection type is hot-swappable and allows connecting to different connection media?

A. MT-RJ

B. SFPs

C. GBICs

D. RJ-45

Which power redundancy mode on a Cisco Nexus 7000 10 Slot Switch provides no redundancy?

A. N+1

B. Combined

C. Complete

D. Grid

What does the IPv6 address, which is equivalent to an APIPA, begin with?

A. 127::1

B. FE80

C. 169.254

D. 2001

What are startup characteristics of a switch? (Choose two)

A. The CLI can be used to customize the configuration at any time

B. You can create a default configuration for continued operation

C. If the POST fails, you must configure the switch

D. An automatic setup program can be used to assign passwords for the admin role

Which device is supported only on fabric uplinks from a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender to a parent switch?

A. Cisco copper-based active twinax cables

B. Cisco SFP+ Transceiver Module SFP-10G-SR

C. Cisco Optical Gigabit Ethernet SFP Transceiver

D. Cisco FET-10G Fabric Extender Transceiver

You are given an IP address of 192.168.1.12/27.

Determine the subnet ID, broadcast address, and usable address range of this subnet.

A. The usable range is 192.168.1.1 to 192.168.1.62, the subnet ID is 192.168.1.0, the broadcast address is 192.168.1.63

B. The usable range is 192.168.1.1 to 192.168.2.254, the subnet ID is 192.168.1.0, the broadcast address is 192.168.2.255

C. The usable range is 192.168.1.1 to 192.168.1.126, the subnet ID is 192.168.1.0, the broadcast address is 192.168.1.127

D. The usable range is 192.168.1.1 to 192.168.1.30, the subnet ID is 192.168.1.0, the broadcast address is 192.168.1.31

You must meet the following criteria:

- Defines the sample-ACL
- Includes statements that permits traffic from any IP address on the 172.16.x.x network carrying TCP traffic going to any IP address that is destined to the www port
- Activated on the Ethernet interface e1/5 in an inbound direction

Which of the following options contains the set of commands to meet the listed criteria?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option D

D. Option C

When configuring VLANs for a Cisco Nexus switch, which VLANs are reserved for system use?

A. 2 to 3967

B. 4095 and higher

C. 1

D. 3968 to 4094

Which statements best describe encapsulation and de-encapsulation? (Choose two)

A. Encapsulation wraps data with the necessary protocol information before network transit

B. De-encapsulation involves the data link layer checking the FCS to see if the data is in error

C. Encapsulation involves the data link layer stripping the data link header and trailer

D. De-encapsulation involves the presentation layer adding the presentation layer header to the data

What is the purposing of windowing? (Choose two)

A. It establishes a connection using a three-way handshake

B. It allows the sending computer to send out a number of packets without receiving acknowledgment of those packets

C. It involves distinguishing sessions from other sessions using port numbers

D. It helps maintain the speed and reliability of the connection

What are the basic services offered by the transport layer? (Choose two)

A. Flow control

B. Session multiplexing

C. Segmentation

D. Reliability

What are the characteristics of 802.1s MSTP? (Choose two)

A. A failure in one instance can cause a failure in another instance

B. It groups a set of instances to single VLAN

C. It can group a set of VLANs to single spanning tree instance

D. The total number of spanning tree instances should match the number of redundant switch paths

You are tasked with subnetting a private address of 172.16.0.0/16 so that it provides 64 subnets while maximizing the number of host addresses in each subnet.

What are the first four subnets?

A. 172.16.0.0/22
172.16.4.0/22
172.16.8.0/22
172.16.12.0/22

B. 172.16.0.0/21
172.16.0.8/21
172.16.0.16/21
172.16.0.24/21

C. 172.16.1.0/23
172.16.2.0/23
172.16.3.0/23
172.16.4.0/23

D. 172.16.0.0/23
172.16.2.0/23
172.16.4.0/23
172.16.6.0/23

In which class does the IP address 192.168.31.2 belongs to?

A. Class C

B. Class A

C. Class B

D. Class D

Which type of connector can a 1000BASE-LX10 SMF cable use?

A. DE-9 or 8P8C

B. Single LC/PC

C. RJ-45

D. Dual LC

Identify the characteristics of Layer 3 addressing. (Choose two)

A. The OSI model uses a NSAP and a TCP/IP uses an IP address

B. MAC addresses are assigned to end devices such as hosts

C. In most cases, devices such as bridges and switches are not assigned a MAC address

D. Each NOS has its own Layer 3 address format

During data flow, which Layer 4 protocol maintains reliable delivery of the data?

A. UDLD

B. RIP

C. LACP

D. TCP

E. PAgP

Which field in a MAC layer of the IEEE 802.3 Ethernet frame contains bits that signal the receiving computer that the transmission of the actual frame is about to start?

A. DSAP

B. FCS

C. SOF

D. SSAP

What is the binary value of the decimal number 176?

A. 10110000

B. 10111000

C. 10011000

Which three options are high availability features of Cisco NX-OS? (Choose three)

A. GR

B. OTV

C. ISSU

D. CoPP

E. ACL

F. SSO

You want to ensure that when you make a change to the VLAN configuration, it only affects the local switch. Which VTP mode should you use?

A. Off

B. Server

C. Transparent

D. Client

What is the administrative distance of a directly connected network?

A. 2 hops

B. There is no way to know

C. Zero

D. 1 hop

How do switches help eliminate network congestion? (Choose two)

A. Media-rate adaptation allows bandwidth to be matched as needed

B. Joining multiple segments extends a LAN to cover greater distances

C. Dedicated communication between devices increases frame throughput

D. Potential network problems can be isolated to specific segments

What does the ARP table map to?

A. IP addresses to MAC addresses

B. IP addresses to supernet addresses

C. IPv4 to IPv6 addresses

D. Subnet addresses to IP addresses

What are the two primary elements in OSPF's two-layer network hierarchy? (Choose two)

A. Area

B. Area border router

C. Backbone router

D. Autonomous system boundary router

E. Autonomous system

Which Cisco NX-OS command mode allows access to the broadest range of commands?

A. Line Configuration Mode

B. Routing Protocol Configuration Mode

C. Global Configuration Mode

D. Interface Configuration Mode

What are two primary characteristics of RIP? (Choose two)

A. Maximum allowable hop count is 15.

B. Routing updates are broadcast every 30 seconds by default.

C. The default administrative distance is 90 for internal routes.

D. The dead interval is four times the hello interval by default.

E. The hello interval on multiaccess networks is 10 seconds by default.

Which protocol from the TCP/IP model runs in full-duplex mode?

A. IGMP

B. UDP

C. ICMP

D. IP

E. TCP

What is the benefit of an IPv6 aggregation?

A. Keeps the IP addresses secure

B. Makes routing more efficient

C. Is the same as subnetting in IPv4

D. Helps to keep subnets manageable

What is the function of DHCP in IP addressing? (Choose two)

A. To set TCP/IP stack configuration parameters

B. To identify the network itself

C. To provide IP configuration information

D. To send data to all the devices on a network

Host A is sending data to Host B.

When would a default gateway be required?

A. Host A does not have an ARP entry for Host B

B. Host A and B are assigned MAC addresses on different networks

C. Host A and B are assigned IP addresses on different networks

D. Host A and B are assigned IP addresses on the same network

How does peer-to-peer communication work? (Choose two)

A. Each layer depends on the OSI layer above it to provide a service

B. The physical layer encodes the data link frame into a pattern of bits for transmission

C. The data link layer presents data to the network subsystem

D. The protocols at each layer exchange packets of information between peer layers

What are the characteristics of a VLAN? (Choose two)

A. It can share broadcasts in different VLANs

B. It can improve the overall performance of the network

C. It cannot span multiple switches

D. It provides segmentation and organizational flexibility

What are the characteristics of flow control? (Choose two)

A. The transport function can issue a "not ready" indicator to the sender

B. The "not ready" indicator tells the transport function to stop sending data and wait for a "ready" indicator

C. When the transport function receives a "ready" indicator, it resumes sending datagrams

D. When space is available, the transport function sends a "ready" indicator to the sending computer

What are the lower 64 bits of an IPv6 address known as?

A. Anycast address

B. Network prefix

C. Interface identifier

D. Global routing prefix

What should you consider when configuring 802.1Q trunking? (Choose two)

A. The "switchport mode" command is used to set an Ethernet port to trunk mode

B. The trunk switchport mode parameter is used to disable port trunk mode

C. The access switchport mode parameter is used to configure the port into permanent 802.1Q trunk mode

D. The "show interface switchport" command is used to display the trunk parameters and VLAN information of the port

What is the dotted hexadecimal equivalent of the IP address 192.168.10.99?

A. D1.B8.10.99

B. D0.9F.A0.F9

C. AC.9F.0B.99

D. C0.A8.0A.63

What are the characteristics of a trunk? (Choose two)

A. A trunk is a point-to-point link between a router and another trunking-capable device

B. Cisco supports 802.1Q for trunking

C. 802.1Q ports cannot be assigned to a trunk

D. You can configure an interface as a trunk port or an access port

How does a switch handle a unicast frame when it does not have an entry for the destination address?

A. It filters the frame.

B. It forwards the frame.

C. It floods the frame.

D. The frame is dropped.

What is the maximum number of ACL's you can have per interface?

A. 110

B. 10

C. 3

D. 1

What is the purpose of the "copy running-config startup-config" command?

A. To reload the switch

B. To save the running configuration to NVRAM

C. To display the current and saved configuration

D. To erase the startup configuration

Network device addresses use binary systems to define their location on the network.

How do the decimal and binary number systems work? (Choose three)

A. The binary system uses only the digits 0 and 1

B. Computers are based on the decimal system

C. When performing powers of 2 calculations, the least significant bit is equal to 2^1

D. In the decimal system, the digits are 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9

E. Powers of 2 provide the basis for binary values

How does the block size technique allow for more addresses? (Choose three)

A. Allows the breaking up an address space into multiple subnets

B. Allows smaller networks to be created and then subdivided into larger ones

C. Allows the hierarchical dividing of the Internet into many levels

D. Provides more efficient use of subnet and hosts

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