CCNA Practice Test | Routing and Switching exam

What are the results of subnetting a large Class A network? (Choose two)

A. Support fewer networks as compared to the original Class A network

B. Support more devices in each network as compared to the original Class A network

C. Support more networks as compared to the original Class A network

D. Support fewer devices in each network as compared to the original Class A network

Refer to the exhibit. A technician is troubleshooting host connectivity issues on the switches. The hosts in VLANs 10 and 15 on Sw11 are unable to communicate with hosts in the same VLANs on Sw12. Hosts in the Admin VLAN are able to communicate. The port-to-VLAN assignments are identical on the two switches. What could be the problem?

A. The Fa0/1 port is not operational on one of the switches.

B. The link connecting the switches has not been configured as a trunk.

C. At least one port needs to be configured in VLAN 1 for VLANs 10 and 15 to be able to communicate.

D. Port FastEthernet 0/1 needs to be configured as an access link on both switches.

E. A router is required for hosts on SW11 in VLANs 10 and 15 to communicate with hosts in the same VLAN on Sw12.

What is the benefit of using a leased line between two offices for connectivity?

A. Reduced Delay and Jitter

B. Reduced Cost

C. Intranet Reduction in Traffic

D. Internet Control

Which statement correctly defines an anycast IPv6 address?

A. Used in one-to-all communication

B. Used in one-to-one communication

C. Used in one-to-a-group communication

D. Used in one-to-nearest communication

Which of the following are the features of EIGRP? (Choose three)

A. Classful routing

B. Stub areas

C. Classless routing

D. Reduced bandwidth usage

E. Rapid convergence

What steps are required to configure the IP SLA ICMP Echo test? (Choose three)

A. Specify the routing protocol to be used

B. Create an IP SLA operation

C. Configure the IP SLA Echo test to perform

D. Schedule an IP SLA test

E. Determine which VLAN is being tested

You have determined that RSTP is creating problems on your network. You want to enable PortFast on your 24 port switch to rectify these problems.
Which commands will do this on all 24 ports? (Choose two)

A. AWS1 (config)#interface range fa 0/1
AWS1 (config-if-range)#spanning-tree portfast

B. AWS1 (config)# spanning-tree portfast

C. AWS1 (config)#interface range fa 0/1-24
AWS1 (config-if-range)#spanning-tree portfast

D. AWS1 (config)# spanning-tree portfast default

What are considerations when troubleshooting ACL issues? (Choose two)

A. They use top-down processing with immediate execution upon a match

B. They use bottom-up processing with immediate execution upon a match

C. If you don't match anything in the ACL, there is an implicit denial at the end

D. Outbound ACLs affect the dynamic routing protocol

What guidelines must be followed to successfully form an EtherChannel bundle? (Choose two)

A. The same duplex setting must be used

B. A mixture of access ports and trunk ports can be used

C. Every link that's going to bundled together must be using the exact same speed

D. The native VLAN can differ for every port that is being placed into that bundle

What are the solutions to the public IPv4 addressing shortage? (Choose three)

A. Subnetting

B. ARP

C. Use of private IPv4 addresses

D. DHCP

E. IPv6

F. Creating more public IPv4 addresses

Which of the following command would you use to enable EIGRP only on those interfaces with an IP address from 10.1.1.0 through 10.1.1.63?

A. network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.63

B. network 10.1.1.0/63

C. router eigrp 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.63

D. network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255

What is the default security violation mode for port security on a Cisco 2960 Catalyst switch?

A. Disable

B. Shutdown

C. Protect

D. None

E. Restrict

F. Err-disable

Which command is used to verify the interfaces that are participating in the RIPv2 routing process?

A. show ip rip

B. show ip protocols

C. show ip route

D. show rip interfaces

E. show ip interface brief

Which translation option would most likely be used in your home to connect all your devices to the Internet over your DSL, Cable, or Fibre connection?

A. Dynamic NAT with overloading

B. Dynamic NAT

C. PAT

D. Static NAT

What is the best definition of a WAN?

A. Remote access to resources across a high speed link

B. Local access to resources

C. Local Internet access

D. Core network resources

Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two)

A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.

B. RSTP defines new port roles.

C. RSTP defines no new port states.

D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.

E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.

You need to back up the Cisco IOS image of your Catalyst switch to a tftp server.
Where is the Cisco IOS image stored?

A. Flash

B. RAM

C. HTTP

D. FTP

E. USB

F. NVRAM

Refer to the exhibit. At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?

A. Switch3, port fa0/1

B. Switch3, port fa0/12

C. Switch4, port fa0/11

D. Switch4, port fa0/2

E. Switch3, port Gi0/1

F. Switch3, port Gi0/2

By default, no password is required to connect to the console port.
Which commands are required to enable local line authentication for the console port? (Choose two)

A. enable

B. exec-timeout

C. privilege

D. login

E. secret

F. password

Which command is used on a Cisco IOS router to enable the DHCP Relay Agent feature on an interface?

A. ip dhcp helper

B. ip dhcp relay

C. ip helper-address

D. ip dhcp relay-agent

E. ip dhcp transmit

F. ip dhcp helper-address

Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?

A. Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.

B. A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.

C. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.

D. Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.

E. Broadcast frames are never sent to switches.

High levels of humidity pose a danger to the devices in your network.
What type of threat is this categorized as?

A. Maintenance

B. Physical

C. Environmental

D. Remote Access

E. Local Access

F. Electrical

You have HRSP configured on your network with R1 as the active default gateway and R2 as the standby default gateway.
What is the best way to configure PC1 to ensure that it is using a redundant default gateway?

A. Create a default route to R2, in case R1 goes down

B. Ensure that the same priority is assigned to R1 and R2

C. Ensure that it is assigned the virtual default gateway

D. Ensure that it is configured with two default gateways

You have created a default route on one of your routers in your EIGRP topology.

How can this default route be shared with the other routers in your topology?

A. Issue the redistribute static command

B. Create the default on each router as it can't be shared

C. Change the administrative distance to 1

D. Issue the redistribute default command

Which of the following is a secure connection sold by service providers for WAN connectivity?

A. Service VPN

B. Access VPN

C. SSL VPN

D. Service provider managed VPN

You are configuring dynamic NAT on your Cisco IOS router. Which command is used to verify the interfaces that are being used as the outside interface and the inside interface?

A. show interfaces

B. show ip route

C. show ip nat translations

D. show ip interface brief

E. show ip interface

F. show ip nat statistics

What is used to determine the MAC address of a known IPv6 address?

A. ARPv6

B. DHCP

C. ARP

D. DHCPv6

E. Router discovery

F. Neighbor discovery

You have the network 192.168.5.0/24 that has been subnetted to /30 networks.
What is the subnet ID of the seventh subnet that was created?

A. 192.168.5.28/30

B. 192.168.5.16/30

C. 192.168.5.12/30

D. 192.168.5.24/30

E. 192.168.5.32/30

F. 192.168.5.20/30

Which option can you choose for saving money while securing your WAN connections?

A. Enterprise Managed VPN

B. Service Provider VPN

C. SSL VPN

D. Access Control VPN

You need to determine the VLAN ID that will be placed in a frame as it exits your Cisco IOS ISR interface of GigabitEthernet 0/0.20. Which command will you use?

A. Show ip route

B. Show mac-address table dynamic

C. Show interface gigabitethernet 0/0.20

D. Show ip arp

E. Show interfaces trunk

F. Show vlans

G. Show interface gigabitethernet 0/0.20 switchport

Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three)

Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A?

A. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.

B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.

C. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.

D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.

E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.

When are VTP messages sent to clients for synchronization while using a VTP server? (Choose two)

A. Every five minutes by default

B. Every ten minutes by default

C. Only when manually triggered

D. Any time there is a change

Refer to the exhibit. A new subnet with 60 hosts has been added to the network. Which subnet address should this network use to provide enough usable addresses while wasting the fewest addresses?

A. 192.168.1.56/26

B. 192.168.1.56/27

C. 192.168.1.64/26

D. 192.168.1.64/27

While configuring a switch, you noticed a configuration issue with an EtherChannel bundle. You thought you corrected the issue, but the change didn't take effect on the EtherChannel bundle.
What is the mostly likely cause of this problem?

A. The changes haven't propagated to the other interfaces

B. You made the change on the interface directly and not the EtherChannel bundle

C. You were in the wrong mode when you made the change

D. You need to make the change on all interfaces that are part of the bundle

Which IPv6 header field specifies the maximum number of hops that an IPv6 packet can take?

A. Flow label

B. Time to live

C. Next header

D. Hop limit

E. Traffic class

F. Extension header

Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?

A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.

B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.

C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.

D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.

Which of the following statements are true regarding the processing of ACLs that have been applied to router interfaces? (Choose two)

A. Inbound ACLs will be processed before the routing table lookup occurs

B. Inbound ACLs will be processed after the routing table lookup has occurred

C. Outbound ACLs will be processed after the routing table lookup has occurred

D. Outbound ACLs will be processed before the routing table lookup occurs

What are the two main functions of a router? (Choose two)

A. Determine the optimal path to forward packets and store the decision in a routing table

B. Determine the optimal path to forward frames and store the decision in a MAC address table

C. Forward frames based on entries in a MAC address table

D. Forward packets based on entries in a routing table

You have the network 172.31.0.0/16 that has been subnetted to /27 networks.
What is the block size?

A. 8

B. 128

C. 4

D. 64

E. 32

F. 16

What are the valid encapsulation methods when forcing a device to become a trunk port? (Choose three)

A. private-vlan

B. dot1q-tunnel

C. dot1q

D. negotiate

E. isl

You have an ACL entry that has the address of 192.168.101.0 and the wildcard mask of 0.0.0.255.
What is the range of IPv4 addresses that will be affected by this ACL?

A. 192.168.101.100 through 192.168.101.200

B. 192.168.101.200 through 192.168.101.255

C. 192.168.101.0 through 192.168.101.100

D. 192.168.101.0 through 192.168.101.255

E. 192.168.101.0 through 0.0.0.255

Which command will assign a global IPv6 address with an autoconfigured interface portion to a router interface?

A. ipv6 address 2001:db8:1:1::0001/64 eui-64

B. ipv6 address 2001:db8:1:1::0001/64 auto-configure

C. ipv6 address 2001:db8:1:1::/64 auto-configure

D. ipv6 address 2001:db8:1:1::/64 eui-64

E. ipv6 address 2001:db8:1:1::/64

When a wildcard mask is presented in binary, what do the zeros (0) indicate?

A. The network portion of the wildcard mask

B. The host portion of the wildcard mask

C. Ignore the corresponding bit in the IP address

D. Match the corresponding bit in the IP address

E. Match the corresponding bit in the subnet mask

Which state of the default STP configuration allows ports to listen for BPDUs but not send any?

A. Listening

B. Learning

C. Blocking

D. Forwarding

You have just configured the following banner on your Cisco IOS router.

Router(config)#banner login #This is a secured environment. If you are not authorized to be here, log out immediately.#
When will this banner be displayed?

A. When the router first boots

B. When users are prompted for authentication credentials

C. Every 5 minutes by default

D. Immediately when any user connects to the device

E. Every 10 minutes by default

Which IPv6 prefix will the typical enterprise network receive from the service provider?

A. /52

B. /56

C. /64

D. /32

E. /48

F. /60

You need to configure your 2960 Catalyst switch to automatically recover a port within one minute that has been placed in the err-disabled state because too many MAC addresses were learned on an interface.
Which commands will accomplish this for you? (Choose two)

A. errdisable recovery cause psecure-violation

B. errdisable recovery interval 10

C. errdisable recovery cause bpduguard

D. errdisable recovery interval 60

E. errdisable recovery interval 1

F. errdisable recovery cause security-violation

For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two)

A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2

B. to allow communication with devices on a different network

C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet

D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first

E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network

F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown

You are using CDP to build a network topology.
Which command is used to verify the IPv4 address of the neighboring Cisco IOS device?

A. show interfaces

B. show cdp

C. show ip interfaces

D. show cdp neighbors

E. show cdp neighbors detail

F. show ip interface brief

Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or forwarding state?

A. converged

B. redundant

C. provisioned

D. spanned

Refer to the exhibit. All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely problem?

A. The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs.

B. The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN.

C. The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk.

D. VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches.

E. Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the switches.

What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three)

A. VLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks.

B. VLANs utilize packet filtering to enhance network security.

C. VLANs provide a method of conserving IP addresses in large networks.

D. VLANs provide a low-latency internetworking alternative to routed networks.

E. VLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical location.

F. VLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network.

Cisco test CCNA 200-125

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