CCNA Practice Test | Routing and Switching exam

How are ACLs processed?

A. Entries are processed bottom-up

B. Entries are processed top-down

C. Entries are processed at the same time

D. Entries are processed randomly

What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each nonroot switch in a spanning-tree topology?

A. path cost

B. lowest port MAC address

C. VTP revision number

D. highest port priority number

E. port priority number and MAC address

What command will successfully change the configuration register so that a Cisco IOS 2900 series router will boot into ROM Monitor mode?

A. Config-register 0x2104

B. Config-register 0x2105

C. Config-register 0x2101

D. Config-register 0x2102

E. Config-register 0x2100

F. Config-register 0x2103

G. Config-register 0x2106

Convert the MAC address "b838.61ad.7340" into an IPv6 EUI-64 interface identifier.

A. BA38:61FE:FEAD:7340

B. B838:61FE:FEAD:7340

C. B838:61FF:FEAD:7340

D. BA38:61FF:FEAD:7340

Which command is used to set your Cisco IOS device as an authoritative time source that will be used as the trusted time source?

A. ntp master

B. ntp server

C. ntp client

D. ntp peer

Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?

A. When a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the VLAN ID can be determined from the source MAC address and the MAC address table.

B. Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN.

C. Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different VLAN.

D. Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span across the ports.

Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two)

A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.

B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.

C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.

D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.

E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.

When creating a trunk port, which "switchport mode" option sets the trunking mode to access unconditionally?

A. access

B. dot1q-tunnel

C. trunk

D. private-vlan

E. dynamic

If both the cost and upstream BID are tied, which BPDU value is used to break this tie?

A. Upstream Port ID

B. Priority

C. Status

D. MAC address

Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect through a switch in the same LAN?

A. ping address

B. tracert address

C. traceroute address

D. arp address

Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports FA0/13. An 802.1Q trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified. What will happen in this scenario?

A. 802.1Q giants frames could saturate the link.

B. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send untagged frames.

C. A native VLAN mismatch error message will appear.

D. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send tagged frames.

Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three)

A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.

B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.

C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.

D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.

E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.

F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.

What information is returned from the "show spanning-tree vlan vlan_id" command? (Choose three)

A. Interface, role, and cost information

B. Root ID information

C. Number of switches on the network

D. Bridge ID information

E. Routing protocol

Which command is used to disable the active technology package for a license?

A. no license save

B. license clear

C. no license boot module

D. license boot module

E. no license install

Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two)

Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic?

A. There are two broadcast domains in the network.

B. There are four broadcast domains in the network.

C. There are six broadcast domains in the network.

D. There are four collision domains in the network.

E. There are five collision domains in the network.

F. There are seven collision domains in the network.

You need to back up the Cisco IOS image of your Catalyst switch to a tftp server.
Where is the Cisco IOS image stored?

A. Flash

B. RAM

C. HTTP

D. FTP

E. USB

F. NVRAM

You are creating a number IPv4 extended ACL.
What is the valid number range you can use?

A. 1100-1199

B. 100-199

C. 200-299

D. 1-99

E. 700-799

Which command will assign a global IPv6 address with an autoconfigured interface portion to a router interface?

A. ipv6 address 2001:db8:1:1::0001/64 eui-64

B. ipv6 address 2001:db8:1:1::0001/64 auto-configure

C. ipv6 address 2001:db8:1:1::/64 auto-configure

D. ipv6 address 2001:db8:1:1::/64 eui-64

E. ipv6 address 2001:db8:1:1::/64

You are configuring PAT on your Cisco IOS router. Which command is used to identify the private IP addresses that can be translated?

A. access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.63

B. ip nat outside

C. ip nat pool NAT_POOL 203.0.113.3 203.0.113.6 prefix-length 29

D. ip nat inside

E. ip nat inside source list 1 interface fastethernet0/0 overload

Refer to exhibit. Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two)

Refer to exhibit. Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C?

A. the IP address of Switch 1

B. the MAC address of Switch 1

C. the IP address of Host C

D. the MAC address of Host C

E. the IP address of the router's E0 interface

F. the MAC address of the router's E0 interface

You have HRSP configured on your network with R1 as the active default gateway and R2 as the standby default gateway.
What is the best way to configure PC1 to ensure that it is using a redundant default gateway?

A. Create a default route to R2, in case R1 goes down

B. Ensure that the same priority is assigned to R1 and R2

C. Ensure that it is assigned the virtual default gateway

D. Ensure that it is configured with two default gateways

Which command would you use to verify eBGP?

A. show ip route

B. show running-config

C. show ip ebgp summary

D. show ip bgp summary

Refer to Exhibit. How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is configured on the switches?

A. one

B. two

C. six

D. twelve

Which component is used to hold the critical electronic components of a router?

A. Motherboard

B. Memory

C. Interface

D. PSU

E. CPU

The network administrator needs to address seven LANs. RIP version 1 is the only routing protocol in use on the network and subnet 0 is not being used. What is the maximum number of usable IP addresses that can be supported on each LAN if the organization is using one class C address block?

A. 8

B. 6

C. 30

D. 32

E. 14

F. 16

Which physical layer media are used today for connecting network devices (switches and routers) together in a LAN? (Choose two)

A. Coaxial

B. Twisted copper pair

C. Fiber optic

D. Wireless

Which statements correctly define variable-length subnet masking (VLSM)? (Choose two)

A. The process of creating subnets with different length masks and deploying them throughout the network

B. The process of creating subnets with the same length masks and deploying them throughout the network

C. The process of taking a default Class A, B, or C network and subnetting it

D. The process of taking an existing subnet and subnetting it again

Which type of unicast address is automatically configured on all interfaces that are enabled for IPv6?

A. Unique local

B. Global

C. Link-local

D. Site local

Why should you implement port security on a switch interface?

A. To control which devices are allowed to access the network

B. To prevent Layer 2 loops from occurring

C. To prevent a unidirectional link

D. To prevent MAC address flooding attacks

E. To control which devices are allowed to manage the switch

Which command is used on a Cisco IOS router to enable the DHCP Relay Agent feature on an interface?

A. ip dhcp helper

B. ip dhcp relay

C. ip helper-address

D. ip dhcp relay-agent

E. ip dhcp transmit

F. ip dhcp helper-address

You are configuring PAT on your Cisco IOS router? Which keyword in the "ip nat inside source" command is used to enable PAT?

A. Interface

B. Overload

C. List

D. PAT

E. Pool

Which commands are used to statically assign an IPv6 address to a device using a manual interface ID? (Choose two)

A. interface Ethernet0/0

B. ipv4 address 2001:DB8:2222:7272::72/64

C. ipv6 address 2001:0DB8:0:1::/64 eui-64

D. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:2222:7272::72/64

Which statements are true about telnet and ssh? (Choose two)

A. Only data traffic is encrypted with ssh

B. All telnet traffic is sent in plain text

C. All ssh traffic is encrypted

D. The data is hashed by telnet during transmission

E. The username and password is hashed by telnet during authentication

F. Only authentication traffic is encrypted with ssh

Which command is used to verify the DHCP relay agent address that has been set up on your Cisco IOS router?

A. show ip interface brief

B. show ip dhcp bindings

C. show ip route

D. show ip interface

E. show interface

F. show ip dhcp pool

Which of the following options are examples of VLSM? (Choose three)

A. Taking the 192.168.1.0/27 and subnetting it to multiple /30s

B. Taking 192.168.1.0/24 and subnetting it to multiple /29s

C. Taking 172.16.1.0/24 and subnetting it to multiple /26s

D. Taking 10.1.24.128/26 and subnetting it to multiple /28s

E. Taking 172.16.0.0/16 and subnetting it to multiple /24s

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator normally establishes a Telnet session with the switch from host A. However, host A is unavailable. The administrator's attempt to telnet to the switch from host B fails, but pings to the other two hosts are successful. What is the issue?

A. Host B and the switch need to be in the same subnet.

B. The switch interface connected to the router is down.

C. Host B needs to be assigned an IP address in VLAN 1.

D. The switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned.

E. The switch interfaces need the appropriate IP addresses assigned.

Which statements correctly define VLANs? (Choose two)

A. VLANs can span many different Layer 3 routers

B. VLANs can span many different Layer 2 switches

C. VLANs divide a single physical collision domain into multiple logical collision domains

D. VLANs divide a single physical LAN into multiple logical LANs

Which statements define the term block size? (Choose two)

A. It is determined exclusively based on the subnet mask

B. It is always a value of 8

C. It is the total number of IPv4 addresses within a subnet

D. It is the progression between subnets within a specific octet

E. It is determined based on the IPv4 address and subnet mask

F. It is always a value of 2

What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst switch?

A. It creates a VLAN 999 interface.

B. It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.

C. It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.

D. It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.

When operating in trunk mode, what command is used to shut off DTP?

A. switchport mode encapsulation dot1q

B. switchport mode trunk

C. switchport mode dynamic desirable

D. switchport nonegotiate

Which command can be used to help disable multiple ports on a switch at the same time?

A. interface range

B. default interface

C. interface range shutdown

D. shutdown range

Which command is used to view the neighbor discovery table on a PC?

A. show ipv6 neighbor

B. show ipv6 neighbors

C. netsh interface ipv6 show neighbor

D. netsh interface ipv6 show neighbors

Which field in an IPv4 header identifies the life span of an IP packet and is decremented by one (1) each time a router forwards the packet?

A. Destination Address

B. Service Type

C. IHL

D. Version

E. TTL

F. Source Address

Which method of assigning IPv6 addresses enables plug-and-play networking of devices to help reduce administration overhead?

A. DHCP for IPv6

B. Stateless autoconfiguration

C. Static assigning using an EUI-64 interface ID

D. Static assignment using a manual interface ID

What is the expected value under the pending routes column when verifying the EIGRP for IPv6 enabled interfaces?

A. 2.

B. 1.

C. 3.

D. 0.

You are currently using PAT to translate private IPv4 addresses to the public IPv4 address of your router interface. Users complain that on occasion Internet connections fail. You determine that these failures are a result of PAT running out of port numbers for unique translations. What should you do to resolve this issue?

A. Obtain another public IPv4 address from your ISP and configure it on another router interface along with the ip nat outside command

B. Purchase more port numbers from your ISP and assign them to NAT

C. Obtain another public IPv4 address from your ISP configure static NAT

D. Obtain another public IPv4 address from your ISP and configure dynamic NAT

E. Obtain another public IPv4 address from your ISP and use both IPv4 addresses in a NAT pool that PAT will use for overloading

Which of the following are characteristics of IP? (Choose three)

A. Connection-oriented protocol

B. Guaranteed delivery

C. Connectionless protocol

D. Transport layer protocol

E. Best-effort delivery

F. Network layer protocol

You have just upgraded your Cisco IOS image on your Cisco 2900 ISR from 12.4 to the following image:

C2900-universalk9-mz.SPA-152-4.M1.bin

You have also deleted the 12.4 IOS image from the ISR. However, when you issue the "show version" command, you notice that the 12.4 operating system is still in use.

How do you solve this issue?

A. Issue the command copy tftp flash

B. Issue the boot system command

C. Reboot the router

D. Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration

E. Issue the command copy flash tftp

How can you test that DNS is working?

A. View the arp cache table

B. View the DNS cache

C. Ping based on the name of the device

D. Ping based on the IP address

Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three)

Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A?

A. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.

B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.

C. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.

D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.

E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.

Which address and wildcard mask combination will match all IPv4 addresses in the networks 172.30.0.0/24 through 172.30.15.0/24?

A. 172.30.0.0 0.0.1.255

B. 172.30.0.0 0.0.31.255

C. 172.30.0.0 0.0.15.255

D. 172.30.0.0 0.0.3.255

E. 172.30.0.0 0.0.63.255

F. 172.30.0.0 0.0.7.255

Cisco test CCNA 200-125

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While calculating your results take a moment to complete our simple survey!

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Why?

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